Find the values of $p$ and $q$

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If $p^3+p=q^2+q$ where $p$ and $q$ are prime numbers,
Find all the solutions (p, q)




I tried to solve this exercise using that:



$p^2 = -1(textmod , q)$ and $q = -1(textmod , p)$;
So: $q+1=ap$ and $p^2+1=bq$, where $b$ and $q$ integers.



Then I tried to solve a quadratic equation, but I could not finish the problem










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    up vote
    5
    down vote

    favorite













    If $p^3+p=q^2+q$ where $p$ and $q$ are prime numbers,
    Find all the solutions (p, q)




    I tried to solve this exercise using that:



    $p^2 = -1(textmod , q)$ and $q = -1(textmod , p)$;
    So: $q+1=ap$ and $p^2+1=bq$, where $b$ and $q$ integers.



    Then I tried to solve a quadratic equation, but I could not finish the problem










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite












      If $p^3+p=q^2+q$ where $p$ and $q$ are prime numbers,
      Find all the solutions (p, q)




      I tried to solve this exercise using that:



      $p^2 = -1(textmod , q)$ and $q = -1(textmod , p)$;
      So: $q+1=ap$ and $p^2+1=bq$, where $b$ and $q$ integers.



      Then I tried to solve a quadratic equation, but I could not finish the problem










      share|cite|improve this question
















      If $p^3+p=q^2+q$ where $p$ and $q$ are prime numbers,
      Find all the solutions (p, q)




      I tried to solve this exercise using that:



      $p^2 = -1(textmod , q)$ and $q = -1(textmod , p)$;
      So: $q+1=ap$ and $p^2+1=bq$, where $b$ and $q$ integers.



      Then I tried to solve a quadratic equation, but I could not finish the problem







      algebra-precalculus number-theory elementary-number-theory polynomials prime-numbers






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      edited 2 days ago









      greedoid

      30.9k94185




      30.9k94185










      asked 2 days ago









      Matheus Domingos

      956




      956




















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted










          $$p^3+p=q^2+q implies p|q^2+q implies p|q mathrmor p|(q+1).$$



          Obviously, $pneq q$, so $pnmid q$. Thus, we can set $q=kp-1$. This then reduces to



          $$p^2-k^2p+(k+1)=0,$$



          which has an integer solution iff $k^4-4k-4$ is a square. Can you see why this is not the case for large $k$, and determine the solutions from there?






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Oh thanks, now I know how to finish it, thanks
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago










          • Is there a better way to do that? I learned in high school to solve that using k^4-4k-4=a^2 and then I have to study that. Is there a better way to do that?
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago










          • @MatheusDomingos Note that $k^4-4k-4$ is very close to $(k^2)^2$. Specifically, for most positive $k$, it is between $(k^2-1)^2$ and $k^2$.
            – Carl Schildkraut
            2 days ago






          • 1




            Note that $k^4=(k^2)^2$ is a square, and that the previous square is $$(k^2-1)^2=k^4-2k^2+1,$$ which is smaller than $k^4-4k-4$ whenever $2k^2-1>4k+4$, and so the latter cannot be a square unless $2k^2-1leq 4k+4$.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago











          • Sorry, I didn't understood how to finish using it
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago

















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Clearly $pneq q$, and because $p$ and $q$ are prime and
          $$p(p^2+1)=p^3+p=q^2+q=q(q+1),$$
          we must have $pmid q+1$ and $qmid p^2+1$. Write
          $$q+1=apqquadtext and qquad p^2+1=bq,$$
          to find that $p^2-abp+b+1=0$. In particular $b+1equiv0pmodp$, say $b=cp-1$, but then
          $$p^2+1=(cp-1)q=(cp-1)(ap-1)=acp^2-(a+c)p+1.$$
          Note that $a$, $b$ and $c$ are positive integers, and that $a>1$ as otherwise $p=q+1$ which implies that $(p,q)=(3,2)$ which is not a solution. The equation above simplifies to
          $$(ac-1)p=a+c,$$
          and as $pgeq2$ clearly we cannot have $a,cgeq2$. Hence $c=1$ and so
          $$p^2+1=bq=(cp-1)q=(p-1)q.$$
          In particular $p-1mid p^2+1$. As $p-1mid p^2-1$ it follows that $p-1=2$, so $p=3$ and hence $q=5$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • How do I finish this solution? Finding all the solution?
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago










          • @MatheusDomingos I completed the solution for you.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago






          • 1




            Thank you, now I understood the limitation. I need to have a+c=>ac-1... What implies that (a-1)(c-1)=>2. Thanks
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago






          • 1




            I rearranged the argument a bit, as in fact $a>1$ follows very easily earlier on, simpifying the final step.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago











          • Understood, more elegant this way,thanks again
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago

















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Hint: Since $p$ divides $p^3+p$, also $p$ divides $q(q+1)$, hence $p$ either divides $q$ or $p$ divides $q+1$, because $p$ is prime. Can you finish it?






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            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Remember that if $a,b$ are positive integers such that $amid b$ then $aleq b$. I'll be using this frekvently here.



            From $$p(p^2+1)= q(q+1)implies pmid q;;;rm or;;;pmid q+1$$



            1. case $pmid q$, then $q+1mid p^2+1$. Write $q+1=s$ then we get $$psmid (p^2+1)(s-1) = p^2s-p^2+s-1implies psmid p^2-s+1$$



            Since $p^2+1geq s$ we have 2 subcases:



            1.1 case $p^2+1>s$, then $psleq p^2-s+1$ so $s(p+1)leq p^2+1$, and thus $$sleq p^2+1over p+1 <pimplies sleq p-1$$



            So $q+1leq p-1 leq q-1$ and thus no solution.



            1.2 case $p^2+1=s$, then $q^2+1 = q+1$ and again no solution.



            2. case $pmid q+1$, then $qmid p^2+1$. Then we get $$pqmid (p^2+1)(q+1) = p^2q+p^2+q+1implies pqmid p^2+q+1$$



            so we have $pqleq p^2+q+1$ so $q leq p^2+1over p-1 leq p+2$ if $pgeq 3$.
            So if $pgeq 3$ and since $pmid q$ that $qin p,p+1,p+2$ which is easy to finish by hand.






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            • Thanks, got this solution!
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










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            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

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            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            5
            down vote



            accepted










            $$p^3+p=q^2+q implies p|q^2+q implies p|q mathrmor p|(q+1).$$



            Obviously, $pneq q$, so $pnmid q$. Thus, we can set $q=kp-1$. This then reduces to



            $$p^2-k^2p+(k+1)=0,$$



            which has an integer solution iff $k^4-4k-4$ is a square. Can you see why this is not the case for large $k$, and determine the solutions from there?






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • Oh thanks, now I know how to finish it, thanks
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • Is there a better way to do that? I learned in high school to solve that using k^4-4k-4=a^2 and then I have to study that. Is there a better way to do that?
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • @MatheusDomingos Note that $k^4-4k-4$ is very close to $(k^2)^2$. Specifically, for most positive $k$, it is between $(k^2-1)^2$ and $k^2$.
              – Carl Schildkraut
              2 days ago






            • 1




              Note that $k^4=(k^2)^2$ is a square, and that the previous square is $$(k^2-1)^2=k^4-2k^2+1,$$ which is smaller than $k^4-4k-4$ whenever $2k^2-1>4k+4$, and so the latter cannot be a square unless $2k^2-1leq 4k+4$.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago











            • Sorry, I didn't understood how to finish using it
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago














            up vote
            5
            down vote



            accepted










            $$p^3+p=q^2+q implies p|q^2+q implies p|q mathrmor p|(q+1).$$



            Obviously, $pneq q$, so $pnmid q$. Thus, we can set $q=kp-1$. This then reduces to



            $$p^2-k^2p+(k+1)=0,$$



            which has an integer solution iff $k^4-4k-4$ is a square. Can you see why this is not the case for large $k$, and determine the solutions from there?






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • Oh thanks, now I know how to finish it, thanks
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • Is there a better way to do that? I learned in high school to solve that using k^4-4k-4=a^2 and then I have to study that. Is there a better way to do that?
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • @MatheusDomingos Note that $k^4-4k-4$ is very close to $(k^2)^2$. Specifically, for most positive $k$, it is between $(k^2-1)^2$ and $k^2$.
              – Carl Schildkraut
              2 days ago






            • 1




              Note that $k^4=(k^2)^2$ is a square, and that the previous square is $$(k^2-1)^2=k^4-2k^2+1,$$ which is smaller than $k^4-4k-4$ whenever $2k^2-1>4k+4$, and so the latter cannot be a square unless $2k^2-1leq 4k+4$.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago











            • Sorry, I didn't understood how to finish using it
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago












            up vote
            5
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            5
            down vote



            accepted






            $$p^3+p=q^2+q implies p|q^2+q implies p|q mathrmor p|(q+1).$$



            Obviously, $pneq q$, so $pnmid q$. Thus, we can set $q=kp-1$. This then reduces to



            $$p^2-k^2p+(k+1)=0,$$



            which has an integer solution iff $k^4-4k-4$ is a square. Can you see why this is not the case for large $k$, and determine the solutions from there?






            share|cite|improve this answer














            $$p^3+p=q^2+q implies p|q^2+q implies p|q mathrmor p|(q+1).$$



            Obviously, $pneq q$, so $pnmid q$. Thus, we can set $q=kp-1$. This then reduces to



            $$p^2-k^2p+(k+1)=0,$$



            which has an integer solution iff $k^4-4k-4$ is a square. Can you see why this is not the case for large $k$, and determine the solutions from there?







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 2 days ago

























            answered 2 days ago









            Carl Schildkraut

            9,08711238




            9,08711238











            • Oh thanks, now I know how to finish it, thanks
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • Is there a better way to do that? I learned in high school to solve that using k^4-4k-4=a^2 and then I have to study that. Is there a better way to do that?
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • @MatheusDomingos Note that $k^4-4k-4$ is very close to $(k^2)^2$. Specifically, for most positive $k$, it is between $(k^2-1)^2$ and $k^2$.
              – Carl Schildkraut
              2 days ago






            • 1




              Note that $k^4=(k^2)^2$ is a square, and that the previous square is $$(k^2-1)^2=k^4-2k^2+1,$$ which is smaller than $k^4-4k-4$ whenever $2k^2-1>4k+4$, and so the latter cannot be a square unless $2k^2-1leq 4k+4$.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago











            • Sorry, I didn't understood how to finish using it
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago
















            • Oh thanks, now I know how to finish it, thanks
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • Is there a better way to do that? I learned in high school to solve that using k^4-4k-4=a^2 and then I have to study that. Is there a better way to do that?
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • @MatheusDomingos Note that $k^4-4k-4$ is very close to $(k^2)^2$. Specifically, for most positive $k$, it is between $(k^2-1)^2$ and $k^2$.
              – Carl Schildkraut
              2 days ago






            • 1




              Note that $k^4=(k^2)^2$ is a square, and that the previous square is $$(k^2-1)^2=k^4-2k^2+1,$$ which is smaller than $k^4-4k-4$ whenever $2k^2-1>4k+4$, and so the latter cannot be a square unless $2k^2-1leq 4k+4$.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago











            • Sorry, I didn't understood how to finish using it
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago















            Oh thanks, now I know how to finish it, thanks
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago




            Oh thanks, now I know how to finish it, thanks
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago












            Is there a better way to do that? I learned in high school to solve that using k^4-4k-4=a^2 and then I have to study that. Is there a better way to do that?
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago




            Is there a better way to do that? I learned in high school to solve that using k^4-4k-4=a^2 and then I have to study that. Is there a better way to do that?
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago












            @MatheusDomingos Note that $k^4-4k-4$ is very close to $(k^2)^2$. Specifically, for most positive $k$, it is between $(k^2-1)^2$ and $k^2$.
            – Carl Schildkraut
            2 days ago




            @MatheusDomingos Note that $k^4-4k-4$ is very close to $(k^2)^2$. Specifically, for most positive $k$, it is between $(k^2-1)^2$ and $k^2$.
            – Carl Schildkraut
            2 days ago




            1




            1




            Note that $k^4=(k^2)^2$ is a square, and that the previous square is $$(k^2-1)^2=k^4-2k^2+1,$$ which is smaller than $k^4-4k-4$ whenever $2k^2-1>4k+4$, and so the latter cannot be a square unless $2k^2-1leq 4k+4$.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago





            Note that $k^4=(k^2)^2$ is a square, and that the previous square is $$(k^2-1)^2=k^4-2k^2+1,$$ which is smaller than $k^4-4k-4$ whenever $2k^2-1>4k+4$, and so the latter cannot be a square unless $2k^2-1leq 4k+4$.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago













            Sorry, I didn't understood how to finish using it
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago




            Sorry, I didn't understood how to finish using it
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago










            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Clearly $pneq q$, and because $p$ and $q$ are prime and
            $$p(p^2+1)=p^3+p=q^2+q=q(q+1),$$
            we must have $pmid q+1$ and $qmid p^2+1$. Write
            $$q+1=apqquadtext and qquad p^2+1=bq,$$
            to find that $p^2-abp+b+1=0$. In particular $b+1equiv0pmodp$, say $b=cp-1$, but then
            $$p^2+1=(cp-1)q=(cp-1)(ap-1)=acp^2-(a+c)p+1.$$
            Note that $a$, $b$ and $c$ are positive integers, and that $a>1$ as otherwise $p=q+1$ which implies that $(p,q)=(3,2)$ which is not a solution. The equation above simplifies to
            $$(ac-1)p=a+c,$$
            and as $pgeq2$ clearly we cannot have $a,cgeq2$. Hence $c=1$ and so
            $$p^2+1=bq=(cp-1)q=(p-1)q.$$
            In particular $p-1mid p^2+1$. As $p-1mid p^2-1$ it follows that $p-1=2$, so $p=3$ and hence $q=5$.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • How do I finish this solution? Finding all the solution?
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • @MatheusDomingos I completed the solution for you.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago






            • 1




              Thank you, now I understood the limitation. I need to have a+c=>ac-1... What implies that (a-1)(c-1)=>2. Thanks
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago






            • 1




              I rearranged the argument a bit, as in fact $a>1$ follows very easily earlier on, simpifying the final step.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago











            • Understood, more elegant this way,thanks again
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago














            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Clearly $pneq q$, and because $p$ and $q$ are prime and
            $$p(p^2+1)=p^3+p=q^2+q=q(q+1),$$
            we must have $pmid q+1$ and $qmid p^2+1$. Write
            $$q+1=apqquadtext and qquad p^2+1=bq,$$
            to find that $p^2-abp+b+1=0$. In particular $b+1equiv0pmodp$, say $b=cp-1$, but then
            $$p^2+1=(cp-1)q=(cp-1)(ap-1)=acp^2-(a+c)p+1.$$
            Note that $a$, $b$ and $c$ are positive integers, and that $a>1$ as otherwise $p=q+1$ which implies that $(p,q)=(3,2)$ which is not a solution. The equation above simplifies to
            $$(ac-1)p=a+c,$$
            and as $pgeq2$ clearly we cannot have $a,cgeq2$. Hence $c=1$ and so
            $$p^2+1=bq=(cp-1)q=(p-1)q.$$
            In particular $p-1mid p^2+1$. As $p-1mid p^2-1$ it follows that $p-1=2$, so $p=3$ and hence $q=5$.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















            • How do I finish this solution? Finding all the solution?
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • @MatheusDomingos I completed the solution for you.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago






            • 1




              Thank you, now I understood the limitation. I need to have a+c=>ac-1... What implies that (a-1)(c-1)=>2. Thanks
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago






            • 1




              I rearranged the argument a bit, as in fact $a>1$ follows very easily earlier on, simpifying the final step.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago











            • Understood, more elegant this way,thanks again
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago












            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            Clearly $pneq q$, and because $p$ and $q$ are prime and
            $$p(p^2+1)=p^3+p=q^2+q=q(q+1),$$
            we must have $pmid q+1$ and $qmid p^2+1$. Write
            $$q+1=apqquadtext and qquad p^2+1=bq,$$
            to find that $p^2-abp+b+1=0$. In particular $b+1equiv0pmodp$, say $b=cp-1$, but then
            $$p^2+1=(cp-1)q=(cp-1)(ap-1)=acp^2-(a+c)p+1.$$
            Note that $a$, $b$ and $c$ are positive integers, and that $a>1$ as otherwise $p=q+1$ which implies that $(p,q)=(3,2)$ which is not a solution. The equation above simplifies to
            $$(ac-1)p=a+c,$$
            and as $pgeq2$ clearly we cannot have $a,cgeq2$. Hence $c=1$ and so
            $$p^2+1=bq=(cp-1)q=(p-1)q.$$
            In particular $p-1mid p^2+1$. As $p-1mid p^2-1$ it follows that $p-1=2$, so $p=3$ and hence $q=5$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Clearly $pneq q$, and because $p$ and $q$ are prime and
            $$p(p^2+1)=p^3+p=q^2+q=q(q+1),$$
            we must have $pmid q+1$ and $qmid p^2+1$. Write
            $$q+1=apqquadtext and qquad p^2+1=bq,$$
            to find that $p^2-abp+b+1=0$. In particular $b+1equiv0pmodp$, say $b=cp-1$, but then
            $$p^2+1=(cp-1)q=(cp-1)(ap-1)=acp^2-(a+c)p+1.$$
            Note that $a$, $b$ and $c$ are positive integers, and that $a>1$ as otherwise $p=q+1$ which implies that $(p,q)=(3,2)$ which is not a solution. The equation above simplifies to
            $$(ac-1)p=a+c,$$
            and as $pgeq2$ clearly we cannot have $a,cgeq2$. Hence $c=1$ and so
            $$p^2+1=bq=(cp-1)q=(p-1)q.$$
            In particular $p-1mid p^2+1$. As $p-1mid p^2-1$ it follows that $p-1=2$, so $p=3$ and hence $q=5$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 2 days ago

























            answered 2 days ago









            Servaes

            19k33685




            19k33685











            • How do I finish this solution? Finding all the solution?
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • @MatheusDomingos I completed the solution for you.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago






            • 1




              Thank you, now I understood the limitation. I need to have a+c=>ac-1... What implies that (a-1)(c-1)=>2. Thanks
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago






            • 1




              I rearranged the argument a bit, as in fact $a>1$ follows very easily earlier on, simpifying the final step.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago











            • Understood, more elegant this way,thanks again
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago
















            • How do I finish this solution? Finding all the solution?
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago










            • @MatheusDomingos I completed the solution for you.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago






            • 1




              Thank you, now I understood the limitation. I need to have a+c=>ac-1... What implies that (a-1)(c-1)=>2. Thanks
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago






            • 1




              I rearranged the argument a bit, as in fact $a>1$ follows very easily earlier on, simpifying the final step.
              – Servaes
              2 days ago











            • Understood, more elegant this way,thanks again
              – Matheus Domingos
              2 days ago















            How do I finish this solution? Finding all the solution?
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago




            How do I finish this solution? Finding all the solution?
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago












            @MatheusDomingos I completed the solution for you.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago




            @MatheusDomingos I completed the solution for you.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago




            1




            1




            Thank you, now I understood the limitation. I need to have a+c=>ac-1... What implies that (a-1)(c-1)=>2. Thanks
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago




            Thank you, now I understood the limitation. I need to have a+c=>ac-1... What implies that (a-1)(c-1)=>2. Thanks
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago




            1




            1




            I rearranged the argument a bit, as in fact $a>1$ follows very easily earlier on, simpifying the final step.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago





            I rearranged the argument a bit, as in fact $a>1$ follows very easily earlier on, simpifying the final step.
            – Servaes
            2 days ago













            Understood, more elegant this way,thanks again
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago




            Understood, more elegant this way,thanks again
            – Matheus Domingos
            2 days ago










            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Hint: Since $p$ divides $p^3+p$, also $p$ divides $q(q+1)$, hence $p$ either divides $q$ or $p$ divides $q+1$, because $p$ is prime. Can you finish it?






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Hint: Since $p$ divides $p^3+p$, also $p$ divides $q(q+1)$, hence $p$ either divides $q$ or $p$ divides $q+1$, because $p$ is prime. Can you finish it?






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                2
                down vote










                up vote
                2
                down vote









                Hint: Since $p$ divides $p^3+p$, also $p$ divides $q(q+1)$, hence $p$ either divides $q$ or $p$ divides $q+1$, because $p$ is prime. Can you finish it?






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Hint: Since $p$ divides $p^3+p$, also $p$ divides $q(q+1)$, hence $p$ either divides $q$ or $p$ divides $q+1$, because $p$ is prime. Can you finish it?







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 2 days ago









                Dietrich Burde

                75.6k64185




                75.6k64185




















                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote













                    Remember that if $a,b$ are positive integers such that $amid b$ then $aleq b$. I'll be using this frekvently here.



                    From $$p(p^2+1)= q(q+1)implies pmid q;;;rm or;;;pmid q+1$$



                    1. case $pmid q$, then $q+1mid p^2+1$. Write $q+1=s$ then we get $$psmid (p^2+1)(s-1) = p^2s-p^2+s-1implies psmid p^2-s+1$$



                    Since $p^2+1geq s$ we have 2 subcases:



                    1.1 case $p^2+1>s$, then $psleq p^2-s+1$ so $s(p+1)leq p^2+1$, and thus $$sleq p^2+1over p+1 <pimplies sleq p-1$$



                    So $q+1leq p-1 leq q-1$ and thus no solution.



                    1.2 case $p^2+1=s$, then $q^2+1 = q+1$ and again no solution.



                    2. case $pmid q+1$, then $qmid p^2+1$. Then we get $$pqmid (p^2+1)(q+1) = p^2q+p^2+q+1implies pqmid p^2+q+1$$



                    so we have $pqleq p^2+q+1$ so $q leq p^2+1over p-1 leq p+2$ if $pgeq 3$.
                    So if $pgeq 3$ and since $pmid q$ that $qin p,p+1,p+2$ which is easy to finish by hand.






                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                    • Thanks, got this solution!
                      – Matheus Domingos
                      2 days ago














                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote













                    Remember that if $a,b$ are positive integers such that $amid b$ then $aleq b$. I'll be using this frekvently here.



                    From $$p(p^2+1)= q(q+1)implies pmid q;;;rm or;;;pmid q+1$$



                    1. case $pmid q$, then $q+1mid p^2+1$. Write $q+1=s$ then we get $$psmid (p^2+1)(s-1) = p^2s-p^2+s-1implies psmid p^2-s+1$$



                    Since $p^2+1geq s$ we have 2 subcases:



                    1.1 case $p^2+1>s$, then $psleq p^2-s+1$ so $s(p+1)leq p^2+1$, and thus $$sleq p^2+1over p+1 <pimplies sleq p-1$$



                    So $q+1leq p-1 leq q-1$ and thus no solution.



                    1.2 case $p^2+1=s$, then $q^2+1 = q+1$ and again no solution.



                    2. case $pmid q+1$, then $qmid p^2+1$. Then we get $$pqmid (p^2+1)(q+1) = p^2q+p^2+q+1implies pqmid p^2+q+1$$



                    so we have $pqleq p^2+q+1$ so $q leq p^2+1over p-1 leq p+2$ if $pgeq 3$.
                    So if $pgeq 3$ and since $pmid q$ that $qin p,p+1,p+2$ which is easy to finish by hand.






                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                    • Thanks, got this solution!
                      – Matheus Domingos
                      2 days ago












                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    Remember that if $a,b$ are positive integers such that $amid b$ then $aleq b$. I'll be using this frekvently here.



                    From $$p(p^2+1)= q(q+1)implies pmid q;;;rm or;;;pmid q+1$$



                    1. case $pmid q$, then $q+1mid p^2+1$. Write $q+1=s$ then we get $$psmid (p^2+1)(s-1) = p^2s-p^2+s-1implies psmid p^2-s+1$$



                    Since $p^2+1geq s$ we have 2 subcases:



                    1.1 case $p^2+1>s$, then $psleq p^2-s+1$ so $s(p+1)leq p^2+1$, and thus $$sleq p^2+1over p+1 <pimplies sleq p-1$$



                    So $q+1leq p-1 leq q-1$ and thus no solution.



                    1.2 case $p^2+1=s$, then $q^2+1 = q+1$ and again no solution.



                    2. case $pmid q+1$, then $qmid p^2+1$. Then we get $$pqmid (p^2+1)(q+1) = p^2q+p^2+q+1implies pqmid p^2+q+1$$



                    so we have $pqleq p^2+q+1$ so $q leq p^2+1over p-1 leq p+2$ if $pgeq 3$.
                    So if $pgeq 3$ and since $pmid q$ that $qin p,p+1,p+2$ which is easy to finish by hand.






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Remember that if $a,b$ are positive integers such that $amid b$ then $aleq b$. I'll be using this frekvently here.



                    From $$p(p^2+1)= q(q+1)implies pmid q;;;rm or;;;pmid q+1$$



                    1. case $pmid q$, then $q+1mid p^2+1$. Write $q+1=s$ then we get $$psmid (p^2+1)(s-1) = p^2s-p^2+s-1implies psmid p^2-s+1$$



                    Since $p^2+1geq s$ we have 2 subcases:



                    1.1 case $p^2+1>s$, then $psleq p^2-s+1$ so $s(p+1)leq p^2+1$, and thus $$sleq p^2+1over p+1 <pimplies sleq p-1$$



                    So $q+1leq p-1 leq q-1$ and thus no solution.



                    1.2 case $p^2+1=s$, then $q^2+1 = q+1$ and again no solution.



                    2. case $pmid q+1$, then $qmid p^2+1$. Then we get $$pqmid (p^2+1)(q+1) = p^2q+p^2+q+1implies pqmid p^2+q+1$$



                    so we have $pqleq p^2+q+1$ so $q leq p^2+1over p-1 leq p+2$ if $pgeq 3$.
                    So if $pgeq 3$ and since $pmid q$ that $qin p,p+1,p+2$ which is easy to finish by hand.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited 2 days ago

























                    answered 2 days ago









                    greedoid

                    30.9k94185




                    30.9k94185











                    • Thanks, got this solution!
                      – Matheus Domingos
                      2 days ago
















                    • Thanks, got this solution!
                      – Matheus Domingos
                      2 days ago















                    Thanks, got this solution!
                    – Matheus Domingos
                    2 days ago




                    Thanks, got this solution!
                    – Matheus Domingos
                    2 days ago

















                     

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