Composition and Addition on a Set of Function and Consequences for Distributitivity

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I'm working on the following question:




Let $S$ be the set of all functions $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$. Consider the following pointwise operations $*$ and $+$:
$$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \ (f*g))(x) = f(g(x))$$
Which of the following is true:



  1. $f * (g + h) = f*g + f*h$

  2. $(g + h)*f = g*f + h*f$



By using the example of constant functions one can eliminate 1. leaving 2. But, I only know this because I peeked at the answer- I didn't think of this beforehand.



Is there a way of seeing this directly without examples? For instance $S$ appears to have some algebraic structure.










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    up vote
    2
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    favorite












    I'm working on the following question:




    Let $S$ be the set of all functions $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$. Consider the following pointwise operations $*$ and $+$:
    $$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \ (f*g))(x) = f(g(x))$$
    Which of the following is true:



    1. $f * (g + h) = f*g + f*h$

    2. $(g + h)*f = g*f + h*f$



    By using the example of constant functions one can eliminate 1. leaving 2. But, I only know this because I peeked at the answer- I didn't think of this beforehand.



    Is there a way of seeing this directly without examples? For instance $S$ appears to have some algebraic structure.










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      I'm working on the following question:




      Let $S$ be the set of all functions $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$. Consider the following pointwise operations $*$ and $+$:
      $$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \ (f*g))(x) = f(g(x))$$
      Which of the following is true:



      1. $f * (g + h) = f*g + f*h$

      2. $(g + h)*f = g*f + h*f$



      By using the example of constant functions one can eliminate 1. leaving 2. But, I only know this because I peeked at the answer- I didn't think of this beforehand.



      Is there a way of seeing this directly without examples? For instance $S$ appears to have some algebraic structure.










      share|cite|improve this question













      I'm working on the following question:




      Let $S$ be the set of all functions $f: mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$. Consider the following pointwise operations $*$ and $+$:
      $$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \ (f*g))(x) = f(g(x))$$
      Which of the following is true:



      1. $f * (g + h) = f*g + f*h$

      2. $(g + h)*f = g*f + h*f$



      By using the example of constant functions one can eliminate 1. leaving 2. But, I only know this because I peeked at the answer- I didn't think of this beforehand.



      Is there a way of seeing this directly without examples? For instance $S$ appears to have some algebraic structure.







      abstract-algebra






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      asked Sep 30 at 18:49









      yoshi

      1,066817




      1,066817




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
            4
            down vote













            At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



            $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



            but



            $$ f * g = x^2 $$



            $$ f * h = 1 $$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Good answer (+1). Constant functions would also suffice, say $f(x)=g(x)=h(x)=3$. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Near-ring#Mappings_from_a_group_to_itself
              – mathmandan
              Oct 1 at 18:44

















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
            $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
            It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



            For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
            beginalign*
            (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
            & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
            endalign*



            So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted










                For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  For the second one apply the definitions: Let's take some $xinmathbbR$ and look at $((g+h)*f)(x)$. By the definition of $*$, this is the same as $(g+h)(f(x))$, which we can further simplify using the definition of $+$ to $(g(f(x))+h(f(x))$. But this is nothing else than $(g*f)(x)+(h*f)(x)$, so $(g+h)*f=g*f+h*f$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Sep 30 at 18:55









                  Jannik Pitt

                  360314




                  360314




















                      up vote
                      4
                      down vote













                      At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



                      $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



                      but



                      $$ f * g = x^2 $$



                      $$ f * h = 1 $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer




















                      • Good answer (+1). Constant functions would also suffice, say $f(x)=g(x)=h(x)=3$. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Near-ring#Mappings_from_a_group_to_itself
                        – mathmandan
                        Oct 1 at 18:44














                      up vote
                      4
                      down vote













                      At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



                      $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



                      but



                      $$ f * g = x^2 $$



                      $$ f * h = 1 $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer




















                      • Good answer (+1). Constant functions would also suffice, say $f(x)=g(x)=h(x)=3$. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Near-ring#Mappings_from_a_group_to_itself
                        – mathmandan
                        Oct 1 at 18:44












                      up vote
                      4
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      4
                      down vote









                      At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



                      $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



                      but



                      $$ f * g = x^2 $$



                      $$ f * h = 1 $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      At least the first one is false. Take $f(x) = x^2 $, $g=x$ and $h=1$, then



                      $$ f * (g+h) = f(x+1) = (x+1)^2 $$



                      but



                      $$ f * g = x^2 $$



                      $$ f * h = 1 $$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Sep 30 at 18:51









                      Jimmy Sabater

                      1,43615




                      1,43615











                      • Good answer (+1). Constant functions would also suffice, say $f(x)=g(x)=h(x)=3$. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Near-ring#Mappings_from_a_group_to_itself
                        – mathmandan
                        Oct 1 at 18:44
















                      • Good answer (+1). Constant functions would also suffice, say $f(x)=g(x)=h(x)=3$. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Near-ring#Mappings_from_a_group_to_itself
                        – mathmandan
                        Oct 1 at 18:44















                      Good answer (+1). Constant functions would also suffice, say $f(x)=g(x)=h(x)=3$. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Near-ring#Mappings_from_a_group_to_itself
                      – mathmandan
                      Oct 1 at 18:44




                      Good answer (+1). Constant functions would also suffice, say $f(x)=g(x)=h(x)=3$. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Near-ring#Mappings_from_a_group_to_itself
                      – mathmandan
                      Oct 1 at 18:44










                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote













                      For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
                      $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
                      It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



                      For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
                      beginalign*
                      (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
                      & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
                      endalign*



                      So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.






                      share|cite|improve this answer
























                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
                        $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
                        It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



                        For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
                        beginalign*
                        (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
                        & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
                        endalign*



                        So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.






                        share|cite|improve this answer






















                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote









                          For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
                          $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
                          It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



                          For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
                          beginalign*
                          (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
                          & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
                          endalign*



                          So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          For (1): It is saying given $f,g,h$ can we have
                          $$f(g+h)=f(g)+f(h).$$
                          It almost reminds you of linearity. So any function $f$ which is not behaving "linearly" (so to speak) can provide a counter example. For example, take $f(x)=sin x$ and take $g(x)=h(x)=x$. Then if this was true, we would have $sin(2x)=2sin x$, which as you may know is not true for all $x$.



                          For (2). This one is true. Here we need to show that $(g+h)f=g(f)+h(f)$. Let $a in mathbbR$, then
                          beginalign*
                          (g+h)f(a) & = g(f(a))+h(f(a)) && (textby definition)\
                          & = g(f)(a)+h(f)(a).
                          endalign*



                          So the two functions agree at all real numbers, hence they are equal functions.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Sep 30 at 18:57









                          Anurag A

                          23.5k12247




                          23.5k12247



























                               

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