Does the word “negotium” literally mean “not otium”?

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Spanish word ocio (English: 'leisure') and negocio (English: 'business` among other meanings) come from Latin otium and negotium. Spanish ocio also gave ocioso, as in estar ocioso (English: 'to be idle' or 'unoccupied'). And a possible meaning of negocio in Spanish is 'occupation'.



So it seems that both words are somewhat related, as negotium seems to be something like not otium. Is that so? Has that neg- prefix something to do with negāre or negatio?










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    up vote
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    Spanish word ocio (English: 'leisure') and negocio (English: 'business` among other meanings) come from Latin otium and negotium. Spanish ocio also gave ocioso, as in estar ocioso (English: 'to be idle' or 'unoccupied'). And a possible meaning of negocio in Spanish is 'occupation'.



    So it seems that both words are somewhat related, as negotium seems to be something like not otium. Is that so? Has that neg- prefix something to do with negāre or negatio?










    share|improve this question

























      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite











      Spanish word ocio (English: 'leisure') and negocio (English: 'business` among other meanings) come from Latin otium and negotium. Spanish ocio also gave ocioso, as in estar ocioso (English: 'to be idle' or 'unoccupied'). And a possible meaning of negocio in Spanish is 'occupation'.



      So it seems that both words are somewhat related, as negotium seems to be something like not otium. Is that so? Has that neg- prefix something to do with negāre or negatio?










      share|improve this question















      Spanish word ocio (English: 'leisure') and negocio (English: 'business` among other meanings) come from Latin otium and negotium. Spanish ocio also gave ocioso, as in estar ocioso (English: 'to be idle' or 'unoccupied'). And a possible meaning of negocio in Spanish is 'occupation'.



      So it seems that both words are somewhat related, as negotium seems to be something like not otium. Is that so? Has that neg- prefix something to do with negāre or negatio?







      etymologia meaning substantivum






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      edited Oct 1 at 14:24

























      asked Oct 1 at 8:53









      Charlie

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          From de Vaan's etymological dictionary:




          otium 'spare time, relaxation' [n. o] (P1.+) Derivatives: otiosus 'at
          leisure, inactive' (P1.+); negotium 'work, business, 1 difficulty'
          (PI.+), negdtiolum 'little business, slight difficulty' (P1.+),
          negotiosus 'occupied, busy' (PI.+).



          For otium, an etymology involving *au- is unattractive, since there is
          no evidence for
          *au-. Benveniste 1951 argues that negotium must have been a nominal cp. *nec-otium from the start, with the meaning 'non-loisir', that is,
          'obstacle, empechement'. It would have been a Latin calque on Gr.
          ἀσχολία 'absence of spare time', 'occupation'. This leaves unanswered
          the question of why the Romans not translate the Gr. word as
          *in-otium. The word remains without etymology. Bibl.: WH II: 157,228f„ EM 436,471.







          share|improve this answer






















          • I've just read in a Spanish etymology book by Joan Corominas that negocio is indeed a "negative derivative of otium", but does not go more in depth about it.
            – Charlie
            Oct 1 at 10:23










          • @Charlie. Yes, but don't "confirm" something from a book published in 2008 by referring to one published in the 1950s.
            – fdb
            Oct 1 at 12:05










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          up vote
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          From de Vaan's etymological dictionary:




          otium 'spare time, relaxation' [n. o] (P1.+) Derivatives: otiosus 'at
          leisure, inactive' (P1.+); negotium 'work, business, 1 difficulty'
          (PI.+), negdtiolum 'little business, slight difficulty' (P1.+),
          negotiosus 'occupied, busy' (PI.+).



          For otium, an etymology involving *au- is unattractive, since there is
          no evidence for
          *au-. Benveniste 1951 argues that negotium must have been a nominal cp. *nec-otium from the start, with the meaning 'non-loisir', that is,
          'obstacle, empechement'. It would have been a Latin calque on Gr.
          ἀσχολία 'absence of spare time', 'occupation'. This leaves unanswered
          the question of why the Romans not translate the Gr. word as
          *in-otium. The word remains without etymology. Bibl.: WH II: 157,228f„ EM 436,471.







          share|improve this answer






















          • I've just read in a Spanish etymology book by Joan Corominas that negocio is indeed a "negative derivative of otium", but does not go more in depth about it.
            – Charlie
            Oct 1 at 10:23










          • @Charlie. Yes, but don't "confirm" something from a book published in 2008 by referring to one published in the 1950s.
            – fdb
            Oct 1 at 12:05














          up vote
          4
          down vote













          From de Vaan's etymological dictionary:




          otium 'spare time, relaxation' [n. o] (P1.+) Derivatives: otiosus 'at
          leisure, inactive' (P1.+); negotium 'work, business, 1 difficulty'
          (PI.+), negdtiolum 'little business, slight difficulty' (P1.+),
          negotiosus 'occupied, busy' (PI.+).



          For otium, an etymology involving *au- is unattractive, since there is
          no evidence for
          *au-. Benveniste 1951 argues that negotium must have been a nominal cp. *nec-otium from the start, with the meaning 'non-loisir', that is,
          'obstacle, empechement'. It would have been a Latin calque on Gr.
          ἀσχολία 'absence of spare time', 'occupation'. This leaves unanswered
          the question of why the Romans not translate the Gr. word as
          *in-otium. The word remains without etymology. Bibl.: WH II: 157,228f„ EM 436,471.







          share|improve this answer






















          • I've just read in a Spanish etymology book by Joan Corominas that negocio is indeed a "negative derivative of otium", but does not go more in depth about it.
            – Charlie
            Oct 1 at 10:23










          • @Charlie. Yes, but don't "confirm" something from a book published in 2008 by referring to one published in the 1950s.
            – fdb
            Oct 1 at 12:05












          up vote
          4
          down vote










          up vote
          4
          down vote









          From de Vaan's etymological dictionary:




          otium 'spare time, relaxation' [n. o] (P1.+) Derivatives: otiosus 'at
          leisure, inactive' (P1.+); negotium 'work, business, 1 difficulty'
          (PI.+), negdtiolum 'little business, slight difficulty' (P1.+),
          negotiosus 'occupied, busy' (PI.+).



          For otium, an etymology involving *au- is unattractive, since there is
          no evidence for
          *au-. Benveniste 1951 argues that negotium must have been a nominal cp. *nec-otium from the start, with the meaning 'non-loisir', that is,
          'obstacle, empechement'. It would have been a Latin calque on Gr.
          ἀσχολία 'absence of spare time', 'occupation'. This leaves unanswered
          the question of why the Romans not translate the Gr. word as
          *in-otium. The word remains without etymology. Bibl.: WH II: 157,228f„ EM 436,471.







          share|improve this answer














          From de Vaan's etymological dictionary:




          otium 'spare time, relaxation' [n. o] (P1.+) Derivatives: otiosus 'at
          leisure, inactive' (P1.+); negotium 'work, business, 1 difficulty'
          (PI.+), negdtiolum 'little business, slight difficulty' (P1.+),
          negotiosus 'occupied, busy' (PI.+).



          For otium, an etymology involving *au- is unattractive, since there is
          no evidence for
          *au-. Benveniste 1951 argues that negotium must have been a nominal cp. *nec-otium from the start, with the meaning 'non-loisir', that is,
          'obstacle, empechement'. It would have been a Latin calque on Gr.
          ἀσχολία 'absence of spare time', 'occupation'. This leaves unanswered
          the question of why the Romans not translate the Gr. word as
          *in-otium. The word remains without etymology. Bibl.: WH II: 157,228f„ EM 436,471.








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          edited Oct 1 at 13:16

























          answered Oct 1 at 10:06









          fdb

          9,76711126




          9,76711126











          • I've just read in a Spanish etymology book by Joan Corominas that negocio is indeed a "negative derivative of otium", but does not go more in depth about it.
            – Charlie
            Oct 1 at 10:23










          • @Charlie. Yes, but don't "confirm" something from a book published in 2008 by referring to one published in the 1950s.
            – fdb
            Oct 1 at 12:05
















          • I've just read in a Spanish etymology book by Joan Corominas that negocio is indeed a "negative derivative of otium", but does not go more in depth about it.
            – Charlie
            Oct 1 at 10:23










          • @Charlie. Yes, but don't "confirm" something from a book published in 2008 by referring to one published in the 1950s.
            – fdb
            Oct 1 at 12:05















          I've just read in a Spanish etymology book by Joan Corominas that negocio is indeed a "negative derivative of otium", but does not go more in depth about it.
          – Charlie
          Oct 1 at 10:23




          I've just read in a Spanish etymology book by Joan Corominas that negocio is indeed a "negative derivative of otium", but does not go more in depth about it.
          – Charlie
          Oct 1 at 10:23












          @Charlie. Yes, but don't "confirm" something from a book published in 2008 by referring to one published in the 1950s.
          – fdb
          Oct 1 at 12:05




          @Charlie. Yes, but don't "confirm" something from a book published in 2008 by referring to one published in the 1950s.
          – fdb
          Oct 1 at 12:05

















           

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