Double summation with improper integral

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So my friend sent me this really interesting problem. It goes:



Evaluate the following expression:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx .$$



Here is my approach:



First evaluate the integral:



$$ frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx.$$



This can be done using integration by parts and we get:



$$ frac1b! fracba int_0^infty fracx^b-1e^ax dx.$$



We can do this $ b $ times until we get:



$$ frac1b! frac(b)(b-a).....(b-b+1)a^b int_0^infty fracx^b-be^ax dx.$$



and hence we end up with:



$$ frac1b! fracb!a^bqquadleft(frac-1 e^-axaBig|_0^inftyright) = frac1a^b+1.$$



Now we can apply the sum of GP to infinity formula and we get:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty frac1a^b+1 = sum_a=2^infty fracfrac1a^21-frac1a.$$



This is a telescoping series and we end up with $$ frac1a-1 = frac12-1 = 1.$$



Do you guys have any other ways of solving this problem? Please do share it here.










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  • 1




    I think this is the simplest way have you done!
    – Nosrati
    Oct 1 at 9:39






  • 6




    One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
    – Winther
    Oct 1 at 9:58














up vote
24
down vote

favorite
9












So my friend sent me this really interesting problem. It goes:



Evaluate the following expression:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx .$$



Here is my approach:



First evaluate the integral:



$$ frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx.$$



This can be done using integration by parts and we get:



$$ frac1b! fracba int_0^infty fracx^b-1e^ax dx.$$



We can do this $ b $ times until we get:



$$ frac1b! frac(b)(b-a).....(b-b+1)a^b int_0^infty fracx^b-be^ax dx.$$



and hence we end up with:



$$ frac1b! fracb!a^bqquadleft(frac-1 e^-axaBig|_0^inftyright) = frac1a^b+1.$$



Now we can apply the sum of GP to infinity formula and we get:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty frac1a^b+1 = sum_a=2^infty fracfrac1a^21-frac1a.$$



This is a telescoping series and we end up with $$ frac1a-1 = frac12-1 = 1.$$



Do you guys have any other ways of solving this problem? Please do share it here.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    I think this is the simplest way have you done!
    – Nosrati
    Oct 1 at 9:39






  • 6




    One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
    – Winther
    Oct 1 at 9:58












up vote
24
down vote

favorite
9









up vote
24
down vote

favorite
9






9





So my friend sent me this really interesting problem. It goes:



Evaluate the following expression:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx .$$



Here is my approach:



First evaluate the integral:



$$ frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx.$$



This can be done using integration by parts and we get:



$$ frac1b! fracba int_0^infty fracx^b-1e^ax dx.$$



We can do this $ b $ times until we get:



$$ frac1b! frac(b)(b-a).....(b-b+1)a^b int_0^infty fracx^b-be^ax dx.$$



and hence we end up with:



$$ frac1b! fracb!a^bqquadleft(frac-1 e^-axaBig|_0^inftyright) = frac1a^b+1.$$



Now we can apply the sum of GP to infinity formula and we get:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty frac1a^b+1 = sum_a=2^infty fracfrac1a^21-frac1a.$$



This is a telescoping series and we end up with $$ frac1a-1 = frac12-1 = 1.$$



Do you guys have any other ways of solving this problem? Please do share it here.










share|cite|improve this question















So my friend sent me this really interesting problem. It goes:



Evaluate the following expression:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx .$$



Here is my approach:



First evaluate the integral:



$$ frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx.$$



This can be done using integration by parts and we get:



$$ frac1b! fracba int_0^infty fracx^b-1e^ax dx.$$



We can do this $ b $ times until we get:



$$ frac1b! frac(b)(b-a).....(b-b+1)a^b int_0^infty fracx^b-be^ax dx.$$



and hence we end up with:



$$ frac1b! fracb!a^bqquadleft(frac-1 e^-axaBig|_0^inftyright) = frac1a^b+1.$$



Now we can apply the sum of GP to infinity formula and we get:



$$ sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty frac1a^b+1 = sum_a=2^infty fracfrac1a^21-frac1a.$$



This is a telescoping series and we end up with $$ frac1a-1 = frac12-1 = 1.$$



Do you guys have any other ways of solving this problem? Please do share it here.







integration summation geometric-progressions






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edited Oct 2 at 6:41









manooooh

484315




484315










asked Oct 1 at 9:18









Tusky

530315




530315







  • 1




    I think this is the simplest way have you done!
    – Nosrati
    Oct 1 at 9:39






  • 6




    One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
    – Winther
    Oct 1 at 9:58












  • 1




    I think this is the simplest way have you done!
    – Nosrati
    Oct 1 at 9:39






  • 6




    One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
    – Winther
    Oct 1 at 9:58







1




1




I think this is the simplest way have you done!
– Nosrati
Oct 1 at 9:39




I think this is the simplest way have you done!
– Nosrati
Oct 1 at 9:39




6




6




One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
– Winther
Oct 1 at 9:58




One approach: interchange summations and integration (allowed by Tonelli's theorem) and perform the sum's ($e^x$ and geometrical series) to end up with a simple integral.
– Winther
Oct 1 at 9:58










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
40
down vote



accepted










since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
beginalign
&sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
&=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
&= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
&= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
&= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    11
    down vote













    The integral is of the Gamma type,



    $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



    Then



    $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



    $$frac12-1.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer
















    • 1




      Ah, it's interesting how you were able to link the integral to the gamma function.
      – Tusky
      Oct 1 at 12:23






    • 2




      @Tusky: this is actually how the Gamma function is defined.
      – Yves Daoust
      Oct 1 at 12:27

















    up vote
    8
    down vote













    For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
    $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
    this make it easier.






    share|cite|improve this answer
















    • 3




      And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
      – Winther
      Oct 1 at 9:52






    • 4




      Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
      – Nosrati
      Oct 1 at 10:01










    • @Winther: there's actually a lot of ways to evaluate that. Integration by parts, differentiation under the integral sign (probably the easiest one), induction etc.
      – edmz
      Oct 1 at 18:26

















    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Also note:
    $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyint_0^inftyfracx^be^axb!dx=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1b!int_0^infty x^be^-axdx$$
    now let:
    $$u=ax$$
    $$dx=fracdua$$
    so:
    $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a*b!int_0^infty left(fracuaright)^be^-udu=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!int_0^infty u^be^-udu$$
    and we know that:
    $$(n-1)!=Gamma(n)=int_0^infty e^-tt^n-1dt$$
    so our summation now simplifies to:
    $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!b!=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=2^inftyfrac1a^c=sum_a=2^inftyleft(sum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-frac1aright)=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-sum_a=2^inftyfrac1a$$
    I know this is correct up to the second summation on the final line but after this I am not sure.






    share|cite|improve this answer
















    • 1




      You definitely don't want to pull out $sum_2^infty frac1a = infty$; note that the converse of $$sum a_n < infty , sum b_n < infty implies sum (a_n + b_n) < infty$$ does not hold. Luckily you don't need to split the sum in $a$, since $$ sum_c=1^infty frac1a^c = frac1a-1 $$ so you have a telescoping sum, giving the result.
      – Calvin Khor
      Oct 2 at 20:34











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    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes








    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    40
    down vote



    accepted










    since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
    beginalign
    &sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
    &=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
    &= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
    &= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
    &= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      up vote
      40
      down vote



      accepted










      since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
      beginalign
      &sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
      &=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
      &= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
      &= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
      &= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        40
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        40
        down vote



        accepted






        since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
        beginalign
        &sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
        &=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
        &= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
        &= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
        &= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign






        share|cite|improve this answer














        since $fracx^be^ax b!$ is non-negative, Tonelli's theorem for iterated integrals/sums allows us to interchange integrals and sums without worry. Then:
        beginalign
        &sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^infty int_0^infty fracx^be^ax b! dx \
        &=int_0^infty sum_a=2^infty e^-ax sum_b=1^infty fracx^b b! dx \
        &= int_0^infty underbraceleft(sum_a=2^infty (e^-x)^aright)_textgeometric series overbraceleft(sum_b=0^infty fracx^b b!-1right)^textseries definition of $e^x$ dx \
        &= int_0^infty frac1e^x(e^x-1)(e^x-1)dx \
        &= int_0^infty e^-x dx \&= 1.endalign







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Oct 1 at 10:08

























        answered Oct 1 at 10:01









        Calvin Khor

        9,79521434




        9,79521434




















            up vote
            11
            down vote













            The integral is of the Gamma type,



            $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



            Then



            $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



            $$frac12-1.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer
















            • 1




              Ah, it's interesting how you were able to link the integral to the gamma function.
              – Tusky
              Oct 1 at 12:23






            • 2




              @Tusky: this is actually how the Gamma function is defined.
              – Yves Daoust
              Oct 1 at 12:27














            up vote
            11
            down vote













            The integral is of the Gamma type,



            $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



            Then



            $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



            $$frac12-1.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer
















            • 1




              Ah, it's interesting how you were able to link the integral to the gamma function.
              – Tusky
              Oct 1 at 12:23






            • 2




              @Tusky: this is actually how the Gamma function is defined.
              – Yves Daoust
              Oct 1 at 12:27












            up vote
            11
            down vote










            up vote
            11
            down vote









            The integral is of the Gamma type,



            $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



            Then



            $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



            $$frac12-1.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            The integral is of the Gamma type,



            $$int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx=frac1a^b+1int_0^infty t^be^-t dx =fracb!a^b+1.$$



            Then



            $$sum_a=2^infty sum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^infty frac1a^2left(1-dfrac1aright)=sum_a=2^infty frac1a(a-1)$$ is indeed a telescoping sum, giving



            $$frac12-1.$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Oct 1 at 10:28









            Yves Daoust

            117k667213




            117k667213







            • 1




              Ah, it's interesting how you were able to link the integral to the gamma function.
              – Tusky
              Oct 1 at 12:23






            • 2




              @Tusky: this is actually how the Gamma function is defined.
              – Yves Daoust
              Oct 1 at 12:27












            • 1




              Ah, it's interesting how you were able to link the integral to the gamma function.
              – Tusky
              Oct 1 at 12:23






            • 2




              @Tusky: this is actually how the Gamma function is defined.
              – Yves Daoust
              Oct 1 at 12:27







            1




            1




            Ah, it's interesting how you were able to link the integral to the gamma function.
            – Tusky
            Oct 1 at 12:23




            Ah, it's interesting how you were able to link the integral to the gamma function.
            – Tusky
            Oct 1 at 12:23




            2




            2




            @Tusky: this is actually how the Gamma function is defined.
            – Yves Daoust
            Oct 1 at 12:27




            @Tusky: this is actually how the Gamma function is defined.
            – Yves Daoust
            Oct 1 at 12:27










            up vote
            8
            down vote













            For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
            $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
            this make it easier.






            share|cite|improve this answer
















            • 3




              And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
              – Winther
              Oct 1 at 9:52






            • 4




              Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
              – Nosrati
              Oct 1 at 10:01










            • @Winther: there's actually a lot of ways to evaluate that. Integration by parts, differentiation under the integral sign (probably the easiest one), induction etc.
              – edmz
              Oct 1 at 18:26














            up vote
            8
            down vote













            For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
            $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
            this make it easier.






            share|cite|improve this answer
















            • 3




              And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
              – Winther
              Oct 1 at 9:52






            • 4




              Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
              – Nosrati
              Oct 1 at 10:01










            • @Winther: there's actually a lot of ways to evaluate that. Integration by parts, differentiation under the integral sign (probably the easiest one), induction etc.
              – edmz
              Oct 1 at 18:26












            up vote
            8
            down vote










            up vote
            8
            down vote









            For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
            $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
            this make it easier.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            For the first part I often use the Laplace transform:
            $$frac1b! int_0^infty fracx^be^ax dx = frac1b! int_0^infty x^be^-ax dx = frac1b! cal L(x^b)Big|_s=a = frac1b! fracb!a^b+1 = frac1a^b+1$$
            this make it easier.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Oct 1 at 9:50









            Nosrati

            23.7k61952




            23.7k61952







            • 3




              And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
              – Winther
              Oct 1 at 9:52






            • 4




              Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
              – Nosrati
              Oct 1 at 10:01










            • @Winther: there's actually a lot of ways to evaluate that. Integration by parts, differentiation under the integral sign (probably the easiest one), induction etc.
              – edmz
              Oct 1 at 18:26












            • 3




              And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
              – Winther
              Oct 1 at 9:52






            • 4




              Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
              – Nosrati
              Oct 1 at 10:01










            • @Winther: there's actually a lot of ways to evaluate that. Integration by parts, differentiation under the integral sign (probably the easiest one), induction etc.
              – edmz
              Oct 1 at 18:26







            3




            3




            And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
            – Winther
            Oct 1 at 9:52




            And how do you evaluate the Laplace transform? I don't see how it's easier unless you 'cheat' and look up the result in a table.
            – Winther
            Oct 1 at 9:52




            4




            4




            Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
            – Nosrati
            Oct 1 at 10:01




            Laplace transform is a tool. We use it's formulas whatever we want!
            – Nosrati
            Oct 1 at 10:01












            @Winther: there's actually a lot of ways to evaluate that. Integration by parts, differentiation under the integral sign (probably the easiest one), induction etc.
            – edmz
            Oct 1 at 18:26




            @Winther: there's actually a lot of ways to evaluate that. Integration by parts, differentiation under the integral sign (probably the easiest one), induction etc.
            – edmz
            Oct 1 at 18:26










            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Also note:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyint_0^inftyfracx^be^axb!dx=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1b!int_0^infty x^be^-axdx$$
            now let:
            $$u=ax$$
            $$dx=fracdua$$
            so:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a*b!int_0^infty left(fracuaright)^be^-udu=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!int_0^infty u^be^-udu$$
            and we know that:
            $$(n-1)!=Gamma(n)=int_0^infty e^-tt^n-1dt$$
            so our summation now simplifies to:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!b!=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=2^inftyfrac1a^c=sum_a=2^inftyleft(sum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-frac1aright)=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-sum_a=2^inftyfrac1a$$
            I know this is correct up to the second summation on the final line but after this I am not sure.






            share|cite|improve this answer
















            • 1




              You definitely don't want to pull out $sum_2^infty frac1a = infty$; note that the converse of $$sum a_n < infty , sum b_n < infty implies sum (a_n + b_n) < infty$$ does not hold. Luckily you don't need to split the sum in $a$, since $$ sum_c=1^infty frac1a^c = frac1a-1 $$ so you have a telescoping sum, giving the result.
              – Calvin Khor
              Oct 2 at 20:34















            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Also note:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyint_0^inftyfracx^be^axb!dx=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1b!int_0^infty x^be^-axdx$$
            now let:
            $$u=ax$$
            $$dx=fracdua$$
            so:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a*b!int_0^infty left(fracuaright)^be^-udu=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!int_0^infty u^be^-udu$$
            and we know that:
            $$(n-1)!=Gamma(n)=int_0^infty e^-tt^n-1dt$$
            so our summation now simplifies to:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!b!=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=2^inftyfrac1a^c=sum_a=2^inftyleft(sum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-frac1aright)=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-sum_a=2^inftyfrac1a$$
            I know this is correct up to the second summation on the final line but after this I am not sure.






            share|cite|improve this answer
















            • 1




              You definitely don't want to pull out $sum_2^infty frac1a = infty$; note that the converse of $$sum a_n < infty , sum b_n < infty implies sum (a_n + b_n) < infty$$ does not hold. Luckily you don't need to split the sum in $a$, since $$ sum_c=1^infty frac1a^c = frac1a-1 $$ so you have a telescoping sum, giving the result.
              – Calvin Khor
              Oct 2 at 20:34













            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            Also note:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyint_0^inftyfracx^be^axb!dx=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1b!int_0^infty x^be^-axdx$$
            now let:
            $$u=ax$$
            $$dx=fracdua$$
            so:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a*b!int_0^infty left(fracuaright)^be^-udu=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!int_0^infty u^be^-udu$$
            and we know that:
            $$(n-1)!=Gamma(n)=int_0^infty e^-tt^n-1dt$$
            so our summation now simplifies to:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!b!=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=2^inftyfrac1a^c=sum_a=2^inftyleft(sum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-frac1aright)=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-sum_a=2^inftyfrac1a$$
            I know this is correct up to the second summation on the final line but after this I am not sure.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Also note:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyint_0^inftyfracx^be^axb!dx=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1b!int_0^infty x^be^-axdx$$
            now let:
            $$u=ax$$
            $$dx=fracdua$$
            so:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a*b!int_0^infty left(fracuaright)^be^-udu=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!int_0^infty u^be^-udu$$
            and we know that:
            $$(n-1)!=Gamma(n)=int_0^infty e^-tt^n-1dt$$
            so our summation now simplifies to:
            $$S=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfraca^-(b+1)b!b!=sum_a=2^inftysum_b=1^inftyfrac1a^b+1=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=2^inftyfrac1a^c=sum_a=2^inftyleft(sum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-frac1aright)=sum_a=2^inftysum_c=1^inftyfrac1a^c-sum_a=2^inftyfrac1a$$
            I know this is correct up to the second summation on the final line but after this I am not sure.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Oct 1 at 23:55









            Henry Lee

            1,08815




            1,08815







            • 1




              You definitely don't want to pull out $sum_2^infty frac1a = infty$; note that the converse of $$sum a_n < infty , sum b_n < infty implies sum (a_n + b_n) < infty$$ does not hold. Luckily you don't need to split the sum in $a$, since $$ sum_c=1^infty frac1a^c = frac1a-1 $$ so you have a telescoping sum, giving the result.
              – Calvin Khor
              Oct 2 at 20:34













            • 1




              You definitely don't want to pull out $sum_2^infty frac1a = infty$; note that the converse of $$sum a_n < infty , sum b_n < infty implies sum (a_n + b_n) < infty$$ does not hold. Luckily you don't need to split the sum in $a$, since $$ sum_c=1^infty frac1a^c = frac1a-1 $$ so you have a telescoping sum, giving the result.
              – Calvin Khor
              Oct 2 at 20:34








            1




            1




            You definitely don't want to pull out $sum_2^infty frac1a = infty$; note that the converse of $$sum a_n < infty , sum b_n < infty implies sum (a_n + b_n) < infty$$ does not hold. Luckily you don't need to split the sum in $a$, since $$ sum_c=1^infty frac1a^c = frac1a-1 $$ so you have a telescoping sum, giving the result.
            – Calvin Khor
            Oct 2 at 20:34





            You definitely don't want to pull out $sum_2^infty frac1a = infty$; note that the converse of $$sum a_n < infty , sum b_n < infty implies sum (a_n + b_n) < infty$$ does not hold. Luckily you don't need to split the sum in $a$, since $$ sum_c=1^infty frac1a^c = frac1a-1 $$ so you have a telescoping sum, giving the result.
            – Calvin Khor
            Oct 2 at 20:34


















             

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