Limit to compare growth of function

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I wanted to compare growth of two functions



$F_1:n^,lg,lg n$



$F_2:(3/2)^n$



$lim_n to infty fracn^lglg n(3/2)^n$



After differentiating it $lg , lg n$ times I get



$lim_n to infty frac(lglg n)!(lg(3/2))^lglg n(3/2)^n$



How do I proceed forward?










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    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite












    I wanted to compare growth of two functions



    $F_1:n^,lg,lg n$



    $F_2:(3/2)^n$



    $lim_n to infty fracn^lglg n(3/2)^n$



    After differentiating it $lg , lg n$ times I get



    $lim_n to infty frac(lglg n)!(lg(3/2))^lglg n(3/2)^n$



    How do I proceed forward?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      I wanted to compare growth of two functions



      $F_1:n^,lg,lg n$



      $F_2:(3/2)^n$



      $lim_n to infty fracn^lglg n(3/2)^n$



      After differentiating it $lg , lg n$ times I get



      $lim_n to infty frac(lglg n)!(lg(3/2))^lglg n(3/2)^n$



      How do I proceed forward?










      share|cite|improve this question















      I wanted to compare growth of two functions



      $F_1:n^,lg,lg n$



      $F_2:(3/2)^n$



      $lim_n to infty fracn^lglg n(3/2)^n$



      After differentiating it $lg , lg n$ times I get



      $lim_n to infty frac(lglg n)!(lg(3/2))^lglg n(3/2)^n$



      How do I proceed forward?







      limits






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      edited yesterday









      user376343

      2,1441716




      2,1441716










      asked 2 days ago









      user3767495

      1348




      1348




















          2 Answers
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          $(ln ln n) (ln n) - n ln (3/2)=n[frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n - ln (3/2)] to -infty$ because $frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n to 0$. [ Use L'Hopital's Rule for this]. Taking exponential we get $e^(ln ln n) (ln n) /(3/2)^n to 0$. This is same as $frac n^ln ln n (3/2)^n to 0$






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          • Same time, same answer !
            – Claude Leibovici
            yesterday

















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          3
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          Consider
          $$y=fracF_1F_2=left(frac32right)^-n n^log (log (n))$$ and take logarithms
          $$log(y)=log (log (n))times log(n)-nlog left(frac32right)=nleft(log (log (n))times frac log(n)n-log left(frac32right) right)$$ When $n to infty$, since $frac log(n)n to0 $, you have
          $$log(y) sim -n log left(frac32right) to -inftyimplies y=e^log(n) to 0$$






          share|cite|improve this answer




















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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            up vote
            3
            down vote













            $(ln ln n) (ln n) - n ln (3/2)=n[frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n - ln (3/2)] to -infty$ because $frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n to 0$. [ Use L'Hopital's Rule for this]. Taking exponential we get $e^(ln ln n) (ln n) /(3/2)^n to 0$. This is same as $frac n^ln ln n (3/2)^n to 0$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Same time, same answer !
              – Claude Leibovici
              yesterday














            up vote
            3
            down vote













            $(ln ln n) (ln n) - n ln (3/2)=n[frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n - ln (3/2)] to -infty$ because $frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n to 0$. [ Use L'Hopital's Rule for this]. Taking exponential we get $e^(ln ln n) (ln n) /(3/2)^n to 0$. This is same as $frac n^ln ln n (3/2)^n to 0$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Same time, same answer !
              – Claude Leibovici
              yesterday












            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            $(ln ln n) (ln n) - n ln (3/2)=n[frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n - ln (3/2)] to -infty$ because $frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n to 0$. [ Use L'Hopital's Rule for this]. Taking exponential we get $e^(ln ln n) (ln n) /(3/2)^n to 0$. This is same as $frac n^ln ln n (3/2)^n to 0$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            $(ln ln n) (ln n) - n ln (3/2)=n[frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n - ln (3/2)] to -infty$ because $frac (ln ln n) (ln n) n to 0$. [ Use L'Hopital's Rule for this]. Taking exponential we get $e^(ln ln n) (ln n) /(3/2)^n to 0$. This is same as $frac n^ln ln n (3/2)^n to 0$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered yesterday









            Kavi Rama Murthy

            39.3k31748




            39.3k31748











            • Same time, same answer !
              – Claude Leibovici
              yesterday
















            • Same time, same answer !
              – Claude Leibovici
              yesterday















            Same time, same answer !
            – Claude Leibovici
            yesterday




            Same time, same answer !
            – Claude Leibovici
            yesterday










            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Consider
            $$y=fracF_1F_2=left(frac32right)^-n n^log (log (n))$$ and take logarithms
            $$log(y)=log (log (n))times log(n)-nlog left(frac32right)=nleft(log (log (n))times frac log(n)n-log left(frac32right) right)$$ When $n to infty$, since $frac log(n)n to0 $, you have
            $$log(y) sim -n log left(frac32right) to -inftyimplies y=e^log(n) to 0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Consider
              $$y=fracF_1F_2=left(frac32right)^-n n^log (log (n))$$ and take logarithms
              $$log(y)=log (log (n))times log(n)-nlog left(frac32right)=nleft(log (log (n))times frac log(n)n-log left(frac32right) right)$$ When $n to infty$, since $frac log(n)n to0 $, you have
              $$log(y) sim -n log left(frac32right) to -inftyimplies y=e^log(n) to 0$$






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote









                Consider
                $$y=fracF_1F_2=left(frac32right)^-n n^log (log (n))$$ and take logarithms
                $$log(y)=log (log (n))times log(n)-nlog left(frac32right)=nleft(log (log (n))times frac log(n)n-log left(frac32right) right)$$ When $n to infty$, since $frac log(n)n to0 $, you have
                $$log(y) sim -n log left(frac32right) to -inftyimplies y=e^log(n) to 0$$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Consider
                $$y=fracF_1F_2=left(frac32right)^-n n^log (log (n))$$ and take logarithms
                $$log(y)=log (log (n))times log(n)-nlog left(frac32right)=nleft(log (log (n))times frac log(n)n-log left(frac32right) right)$$ When $n to infty$, since $frac log(n)n to0 $, you have
                $$log(y) sim -n log left(frac32right) to -inftyimplies y=e^log(n) to 0$$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered yesterday









                Claude Leibovici

                116k1156131




                116k1156131



























                     

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