Existence of inverses of linear combinations of bounded operators
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If $V$ is a banach space and $T$ is a bounded linear operator on $V$. If $|T|< a$ where $a>0$, then is $A=T-aI$ invertible? If so why? We know that if $|T|<1$ then $(I-T)$ is invertible.
functional-analysis operator-theory linear-transformations
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up vote
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If $V$ is a banach space and $T$ is a bounded linear operator on $V$. If $|T|< a$ where $a>0$, then is $A=T-aI$ invertible? If so why? We know that if $|T|<1$ then $(I-T)$ is invertible.
functional-analysis operator-theory linear-transformations
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
If $V$ is a banach space and $T$ is a bounded linear operator on $V$. If $|T|< a$ where $a>0$, then is $A=T-aI$ invertible? If so why? We know that if $|T|<1$ then $(I-T)$ is invertible.
functional-analysis operator-theory linear-transformations
If $V$ is a banach space and $T$ is a bounded linear operator on $V$. If $|T|< a$ where $a>0$, then is $A=T-aI$ invertible? If so why? We know that if $|T|<1$ then $(I-T)$ is invertible.
functional-analysis operator-theory linear-transformations
functional-analysis operator-theory linear-transformations
edited 14 mins ago
qbert
21.2k32356
21.2k32356
asked 24 mins ago
user593295
335
335
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add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
Note
$$
T-aI=-a(I-frac1aT)
$$
and by assumption
$$
left|left| frac1aT right|right|=frac1a||T||<1
$$
So $(I-frac1aT)^-1$ is invertible and the inverse of $T-aI$ is then
$$
-frac1a(I-frac1aT)^-1
$$
I assume if $(1-1/aT)$ is invertible, then any scale of that operator is invertible? (i.e we can freely multiply by $-a$ and its fine)
â user593295
12 mins ago
yes, and you can explicitly give its inverse, as in the above
â qbert
3 mins ago
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
Note
$$
T-aI=-a(I-frac1aT)
$$
and by assumption
$$
left|left| frac1aT right|right|=frac1a||T||<1
$$
So $(I-frac1aT)^-1$ is invertible and the inverse of $T-aI$ is then
$$
-frac1a(I-frac1aT)^-1
$$
I assume if $(1-1/aT)$ is invertible, then any scale of that operator is invertible? (i.e we can freely multiply by $-a$ and its fine)
â user593295
12 mins ago
yes, and you can explicitly give its inverse, as in the above
â qbert
3 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
Note
$$
T-aI=-a(I-frac1aT)
$$
and by assumption
$$
left|left| frac1aT right|right|=frac1a||T||<1
$$
So $(I-frac1aT)^-1$ is invertible and the inverse of $T-aI$ is then
$$
-frac1a(I-frac1aT)^-1
$$
I assume if $(1-1/aT)$ is invertible, then any scale of that operator is invertible? (i.e we can freely multiply by $-a$ and its fine)
â user593295
12 mins ago
yes, and you can explicitly give its inverse, as in the above
â qbert
3 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
Note
$$
T-aI=-a(I-frac1aT)
$$
and by assumption
$$
left|left| frac1aT right|right|=frac1a||T||<1
$$
So $(I-frac1aT)^-1$ is invertible and the inverse of $T-aI$ is then
$$
-frac1a(I-frac1aT)^-1
$$
Note
$$
T-aI=-a(I-frac1aT)
$$
and by assumption
$$
left|left| frac1aT right|right|=frac1a||T||<1
$$
So $(I-frac1aT)^-1$ is invertible and the inverse of $T-aI$ is then
$$
-frac1a(I-frac1aT)^-1
$$
answered 18 mins ago
qbert
21.2k32356
21.2k32356
I assume if $(1-1/aT)$ is invertible, then any scale of that operator is invertible? (i.e we can freely multiply by $-a$ and its fine)
â user593295
12 mins ago
yes, and you can explicitly give its inverse, as in the above
â qbert
3 mins ago
add a comment |Â
I assume if $(1-1/aT)$ is invertible, then any scale of that operator is invertible? (i.e we can freely multiply by $-a$ and its fine)
â user593295
12 mins ago
yes, and you can explicitly give its inverse, as in the above
â qbert
3 mins ago
I assume if $(1-1/aT)$ is invertible, then any scale of that operator is invertible? (i.e we can freely multiply by $-a$ and its fine)
â user593295
12 mins ago
I assume if $(1-1/aT)$ is invertible, then any scale of that operator is invertible? (i.e we can freely multiply by $-a$ and its fine)
â user593295
12 mins ago
yes, and you can explicitly give its inverse, as in the above
â qbert
3 mins ago
yes, and you can explicitly give its inverse, as in the above
â qbert
3 mins ago
add a comment |Â
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