Completion of measure spaces - uniqueness
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
If $(X,mathcalA,mu)$ is a measure space,
$(X,mathcalB,overlinemu)$ is complete,
$mathcalBsupsetmathcalA$, and $overlinemu(A)=mu(A)$ for
every $AinmathcalA$, is $(X,mathcalB,overlinemu)$
necessarily the completion of $(X,mathcalA,mu)$?
My definition of completion is:
The completion of $mathcalA$ is the smallest $sigma$-algebra $mathcalB$ containing $mathcalA$ such that $(X,mathcalB,mu)$ is complete.
It seems like the answer to my question is no, because it isn't clear that $mathcalB$ is necessarily the smallest $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties. But I have been looking at the Completion Theorem where they seem to assume that the answer to my question is yes. How can I see that the smallest $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties is the only $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties?
real-analysis measure-theory
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
If $(X,mathcalA,mu)$ is a measure space,
$(X,mathcalB,overlinemu)$ is complete,
$mathcalBsupsetmathcalA$, and $overlinemu(A)=mu(A)$ for
every $AinmathcalA$, is $(X,mathcalB,overlinemu)$
necessarily the completion of $(X,mathcalA,mu)$?
My definition of completion is:
The completion of $mathcalA$ is the smallest $sigma$-algebra $mathcalB$ containing $mathcalA$ such that $(X,mathcalB,mu)$ is complete.
It seems like the answer to my question is no, because it isn't clear that $mathcalB$ is necessarily the smallest $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties. But I have been looking at the Completion Theorem where they seem to assume that the answer to my question is yes. How can I see that the smallest $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties is the only $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties?
real-analysis measure-theory
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
If $(X,mathcalA,mu)$ is a measure space,
$(X,mathcalB,overlinemu)$ is complete,
$mathcalBsupsetmathcalA$, and $overlinemu(A)=mu(A)$ for
every $AinmathcalA$, is $(X,mathcalB,overlinemu)$
necessarily the completion of $(X,mathcalA,mu)$?
My definition of completion is:
The completion of $mathcalA$ is the smallest $sigma$-algebra $mathcalB$ containing $mathcalA$ such that $(X,mathcalB,mu)$ is complete.
It seems like the answer to my question is no, because it isn't clear that $mathcalB$ is necessarily the smallest $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties. But I have been looking at the Completion Theorem where they seem to assume that the answer to my question is yes. How can I see that the smallest $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties is the only $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties?
real-analysis measure-theory
If $(X,mathcalA,mu)$ is a measure space,
$(X,mathcalB,overlinemu)$ is complete,
$mathcalBsupsetmathcalA$, and $overlinemu(A)=mu(A)$ for
every $AinmathcalA$, is $(X,mathcalB,overlinemu)$
necessarily the completion of $(X,mathcalA,mu)$?
My definition of completion is:
The completion of $mathcalA$ is the smallest $sigma$-algebra $mathcalB$ containing $mathcalA$ such that $(X,mathcalB,mu)$ is complete.
It seems like the answer to my question is no, because it isn't clear that $mathcalB$ is necessarily the smallest $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties. But I have been looking at the Completion Theorem where they seem to assume that the answer to my question is yes. How can I see that the smallest $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties is the only $sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties?
real-analysis measure-theory
real-analysis measure-theory
asked Aug 17 at 8:43
rbird
1,12313
1,12313
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The completion theorem is first an existence theorem. The proof gives an explicit construction of the completion.
If you look into the proof, then you see that the $sigma$-algebra $Sigma^*$ constructed there is the smallest possible.
It contains the original $mathcal A$ and all subsets of sets of zero measure.
Completion of measure space is usually defined without the requirement of smallest possible $sigma$-algebra. The completion theorem gives you this smallest completion for free.
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
As stated the result is surely false. If $(X,mathcal A, mu)$ is already complete you are asserting that we cannot extend the measure to a larger sigma algebra. Take $mathcal A$ to be trivial sigma algebra (consisting of just the empty set and the whole space) to get obvious counter-examples.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
In general, the extension you are looking for is not unique.
Let $X=[0,1]$, for example, and consider the trivial $sigma$-algebra $mathcal A=emptyset, X$. Let $mu(emptyset)=0$ and $mu(X)=1$.
This is complete, but there are a lot of different ways to extend it to a complete measure on a finer $sigma$-algebra.
For example, $mathcal B$ can be all subsets of $X$, and the measure can be any Dirac measure.
Or the Lebesgue measure is also good.
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The completion theorem is first an existence theorem. The proof gives an explicit construction of the completion.
If you look into the proof, then you see that the $sigma$-algebra $Sigma^*$ constructed there is the smallest possible.
It contains the original $mathcal A$ and all subsets of sets of zero measure.
Completion of measure space is usually defined without the requirement of smallest possible $sigma$-algebra. The completion theorem gives you this smallest completion for free.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The completion theorem is first an existence theorem. The proof gives an explicit construction of the completion.
If you look into the proof, then you see that the $sigma$-algebra $Sigma^*$ constructed there is the smallest possible.
It contains the original $mathcal A$ and all subsets of sets of zero measure.
Completion of measure space is usually defined without the requirement of smallest possible $sigma$-algebra. The completion theorem gives you this smallest completion for free.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The completion theorem is first an existence theorem. The proof gives an explicit construction of the completion.
If you look into the proof, then you see that the $sigma$-algebra $Sigma^*$ constructed there is the smallest possible.
It contains the original $mathcal A$ and all subsets of sets of zero measure.
Completion of measure space is usually defined without the requirement of smallest possible $sigma$-algebra. The completion theorem gives you this smallest completion for free.
The completion theorem is first an existence theorem. The proof gives an explicit construction of the completion.
If you look into the proof, then you see that the $sigma$-algebra $Sigma^*$ constructed there is the smallest possible.
It contains the original $mathcal A$ and all subsets of sets of zero measure.
Completion of measure space is usually defined without the requirement of smallest possible $sigma$-algebra. The completion theorem gives you this smallest completion for free.
answered Aug 17 at 8:53
daw
22.2k1542
22.2k1542
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
As stated the result is surely false. If $(X,mathcal A, mu)$ is already complete you are asserting that we cannot extend the measure to a larger sigma algebra. Take $mathcal A$ to be trivial sigma algebra (consisting of just the empty set and the whole space) to get obvious counter-examples.
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
As stated the result is surely false. If $(X,mathcal A, mu)$ is already complete you are asserting that we cannot extend the measure to a larger sigma algebra. Take $mathcal A$ to be trivial sigma algebra (consisting of just the empty set and the whole space) to get obvious counter-examples.
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
As stated the result is surely false. If $(X,mathcal A, mu)$ is already complete you are asserting that we cannot extend the measure to a larger sigma algebra. Take $mathcal A$ to be trivial sigma algebra (consisting of just the empty set and the whole space) to get obvious counter-examples.
As stated the result is surely false. If $(X,mathcal A, mu)$ is already complete you are asserting that we cannot extend the measure to a larger sigma algebra. Take $mathcal A$ to be trivial sigma algebra (consisting of just the empty set and the whole space) to get obvious counter-examples.
answered Aug 17 at 9:00
Kavi Rama Murthy
26.5k31438
26.5k31438
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
In general, the extension you are looking for is not unique.
Let $X=[0,1]$, for example, and consider the trivial $sigma$-algebra $mathcal A=emptyset, X$. Let $mu(emptyset)=0$ and $mu(X)=1$.
This is complete, but there are a lot of different ways to extend it to a complete measure on a finer $sigma$-algebra.
For example, $mathcal B$ can be all subsets of $X$, and the measure can be any Dirac measure.
Or the Lebesgue measure is also good.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
In general, the extension you are looking for is not unique.
Let $X=[0,1]$, for example, and consider the trivial $sigma$-algebra $mathcal A=emptyset, X$. Let $mu(emptyset)=0$ and $mu(X)=1$.
This is complete, but there are a lot of different ways to extend it to a complete measure on a finer $sigma$-algebra.
For example, $mathcal B$ can be all subsets of $X$, and the measure can be any Dirac measure.
Or the Lebesgue measure is also good.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
In general, the extension you are looking for is not unique.
Let $X=[0,1]$, for example, and consider the trivial $sigma$-algebra $mathcal A=emptyset, X$. Let $mu(emptyset)=0$ and $mu(X)=1$.
This is complete, but there are a lot of different ways to extend it to a complete measure on a finer $sigma$-algebra.
For example, $mathcal B$ can be all subsets of $X$, and the measure can be any Dirac measure.
Or the Lebesgue measure is also good.
In general, the extension you are looking for is not unique.
Let $X=[0,1]$, for example, and consider the trivial $sigma$-algebra $mathcal A=emptyset, X$. Let $mu(emptyset)=0$ and $mu(X)=1$.
This is complete, but there are a lot of different ways to extend it to a complete measure on a finer $sigma$-algebra.
For example, $mathcal B$ can be all subsets of $X$, and the measure can be any Dirac measure.
Or the Lebesgue measure is also good.
answered Aug 17 at 9:00
A. Pongrácz
4,450725
4,450725
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2885548%2fcompletion-of-measure-spaces-uniqueness%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password