Proof by contradiction in Constructive Mathematics

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP












4












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I’m watching this video on Constructive Mathematics Five Stages of Accepting Constructive Mathematics, and Andrej Bauer makes the following claim:




Mathematicians call two different things “Proof by Contradiction”. One is assume $neg p$, blah blah blah contradiction. Therefore, $p$. The other is assume $p$, blah blah blah contradiction. Therefore, $neg p$. The first is not constructively valid, but the second is. The second is how you prove negation.




I’m confused why the latter is constructively valid. Aren’t the two statements dual to each other in some sense, even constructively speaking? Perhaps I’m confused about proving negation.










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  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Note that saying 'assume $neg p$, blah blah, contradiction' is still a fine argument - but what it proves is $neg neg p$, and in constructive mathematics you can't infer $p$ from $neg neg p$.
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Feb 8 at 2:27







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that it is more accurate to say "intuitionistically", since "constructive" is not at all restricted to only "intuitionistic" in general. Also note that negation in intuitionistic logic is not the same as negation in classical logic, hence the asymmetry. It so happens that ¬P and (P⇒⊥) are classically equivalent, but that does not imply that classical negation is the same as intuitionistic negation.
    $endgroup$
    – user21820
    Feb 8 at 7:24















4












$begingroup$


I’m watching this video on Constructive Mathematics Five Stages of Accepting Constructive Mathematics, and Andrej Bauer makes the following claim:




Mathematicians call two different things “Proof by Contradiction”. One is assume $neg p$, blah blah blah contradiction. Therefore, $p$. The other is assume $p$, blah blah blah contradiction. Therefore, $neg p$. The first is not constructively valid, but the second is. The second is how you prove negation.




I’m confused why the latter is constructively valid. Aren’t the two statements dual to each other in some sense, even constructively speaking? Perhaps I’m confused about proving negation.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Note that saying 'assume $neg p$, blah blah, contradiction' is still a fine argument - but what it proves is $neg neg p$, and in constructive mathematics you can't infer $p$ from $neg neg p$.
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Feb 8 at 2:27







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that it is more accurate to say "intuitionistically", since "constructive" is not at all restricted to only "intuitionistic" in general. Also note that negation in intuitionistic logic is not the same as negation in classical logic, hence the asymmetry. It so happens that ¬P and (P⇒⊥) are classically equivalent, but that does not imply that classical negation is the same as intuitionistic negation.
    $endgroup$
    – user21820
    Feb 8 at 7:24













4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


I’m watching this video on Constructive Mathematics Five Stages of Accepting Constructive Mathematics, and Andrej Bauer makes the following claim:




Mathematicians call two different things “Proof by Contradiction”. One is assume $neg p$, blah blah blah contradiction. Therefore, $p$. The other is assume $p$, blah blah blah contradiction. Therefore, $neg p$. The first is not constructively valid, but the second is. The second is how you prove negation.




I’m confused why the latter is constructively valid. Aren’t the two statements dual to each other in some sense, even constructively speaking? Perhaps I’m confused about proving negation.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I’m watching this video on Constructive Mathematics Five Stages of Accepting Constructive Mathematics, and Andrej Bauer makes the following claim:




Mathematicians call two different things “Proof by Contradiction”. One is assume $neg p$, blah blah blah contradiction. Therefore, $p$. The other is assume $p$, blah blah blah contradiction. Therefore, $neg p$. The first is not constructively valid, but the second is. The second is how you prove negation.




I’m confused why the latter is constructively valid. Aren’t the two statements dual to each other in some sense, even constructively speaking? Perhaps I’m confused about proving negation.







soft-question constructive-mathematics






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edited Feb 8 at 10:32









Rodrigo de Azevedo

13k41960




13k41960










asked Feb 8 at 2:05









user458276user458276

688212




688212







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Note that saying 'assume $neg p$, blah blah, contradiction' is still a fine argument - but what it proves is $neg neg p$, and in constructive mathematics you can't infer $p$ from $neg neg p$.
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Feb 8 at 2:27







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that it is more accurate to say "intuitionistically", since "constructive" is not at all restricted to only "intuitionistic" in general. Also note that negation in intuitionistic logic is not the same as negation in classical logic, hence the asymmetry. It so happens that ¬P and (P⇒⊥) are classically equivalent, but that does not imply that classical negation is the same as intuitionistic negation.
    $endgroup$
    – user21820
    Feb 8 at 7:24












  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Note that saying 'assume $neg p$, blah blah, contradiction' is still a fine argument - but what it proves is $neg neg p$, and in constructive mathematics you can't infer $p$ from $neg neg p$.
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Feb 8 at 2:27







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that it is more accurate to say "intuitionistically", since "constructive" is not at all restricted to only "intuitionistic" in general. Also note that negation in intuitionistic logic is not the same as negation in classical logic, hence the asymmetry. It so happens that ¬P and (P⇒⊥) are classically equivalent, but that does not imply that classical negation is the same as intuitionistic negation.
    $endgroup$
    – user21820
    Feb 8 at 7:24







4




4




$begingroup$
Note that saying 'assume $neg p$, blah blah, contradiction' is still a fine argument - but what it proves is $neg neg p$, and in constructive mathematics you can't infer $p$ from $neg neg p$.
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Feb 8 at 2:27





$begingroup$
Note that saying 'assume $neg p$, blah blah, contradiction' is still a fine argument - but what it proves is $neg neg p$, and in constructive mathematics you can't infer $p$ from $neg neg p$.
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Feb 8 at 2:27





1




1




$begingroup$
Note that it is more accurate to say "intuitionistically", since "constructive" is not at all restricted to only "intuitionistic" in general. Also note that negation in intuitionistic logic is not the same as negation in classical logic, hence the asymmetry. It so happens that ¬P and (P⇒⊥) are classically equivalent, but that does not imply that classical negation is the same as intuitionistic negation.
$endgroup$
– user21820
Feb 8 at 7:24




$begingroup$
Note that it is more accurate to say "intuitionistically", since "constructive" is not at all restricted to only "intuitionistic" in general. Also note that negation in intuitionistic logic is not the same as negation in classical logic, hence the asymmetry. It so happens that ¬P and (P⇒⊥) are classically equivalent, but that does not imply that classical negation is the same as intuitionistic negation.
$endgroup$
– user21820
Feb 8 at 7:24










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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7












$begingroup$

One rule is negation-introduction; that is "If we derive a contradiction under an assumption, then we may infer that the premises entail the negation of the assumption."   This is a "Proof of Negation". $$beginsplitGamma, p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnot pendsplittag 1, $lnot$i$$



Well, what if we derive a contradiction when we assume a negation?   Applying this rule we would infer that the premises entail the negation of that negation; ie a 'double negation'. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnotlnot pendsplittag 2$$



This is all intuitionistically valid.   The difference between intuitionistic (contructive) and classical logic is the rule of double-negation-elimination (DNE), is only admissible under the later; it says "if we can derive a double negation of a proposition we may infer that we can derive the proposition." $$beginsplitGamma &vdash lnotlnot p\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag 3, DNE$$



Putting (2) and (3) together and we have "Proof by Reduction to Absurdity", and this is why it is not intuitionistically valid. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag4, RAA$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    5












    $begingroup$


    The second is how you prove negation.




    When you are proving "not $A$", you are proving "if $A$, then contradiction", because this is literally how "not $A$" is defined in constructive logic.



    When you are proving "$A$", it does not suffice to prove "if not $A$, then contradiction", because $A$ is not defined this way (that would be circular!) and there is no general rule that tells you that "if not $A$, then contradiction" implies $A$. There are situations when this does hold (for example, if $A$ is computable -- i.e., there exists a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$), but these are theorems that have to be proven rather than consequences of a general axiom like TND. (For example, when $A$ is computable -- i.e., when you know a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$ -- you can prove $A$ by proving "if not $A$, then contradiction" -- but the reason why this works is simply that you can distinguish cases based upon whether $a = operatornameTrue$ or $a = operatornameFalse$. So, on the level of axioms, you are not using TND, but rather emulating a "proof by contradiction" by inducting (= distinguishing cases) upon a boolean. If you don't know such a boolean $a$, then this trick does not work.)



    Yes, these situations are dual in a sense, but "dual" does not mean "equally true" in mathematics. Even in classical mathematics. For example, a basis of a vector space may have any cardinality, but a basis of a dual of a vector space may not :)






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Perhaps it's worth adding that TND stands for "tertium non datur" also known as LEM "law of excluded middle", which states $plor lnot p$ and is, in a sense, "the" axiom of classical logic which is not postulated by constructive logic.
      $endgroup$
      – chi
      Feb 8 at 10:32











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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

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    7












    $begingroup$

    One rule is negation-introduction; that is "If we derive a contradiction under an assumption, then we may infer that the premises entail the negation of the assumption."   This is a "Proof of Negation". $$beginsplitGamma, p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnot pendsplittag 1, $lnot$i$$



    Well, what if we derive a contradiction when we assume a negation?   Applying this rule we would infer that the premises entail the negation of that negation; ie a 'double negation'. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnotlnot pendsplittag 2$$



    This is all intuitionistically valid.   The difference between intuitionistic (contructive) and classical logic is the rule of double-negation-elimination (DNE), is only admissible under the later; it says "if we can derive a double negation of a proposition we may infer that we can derive the proposition." $$beginsplitGamma &vdash lnotlnot p\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag 3, DNE$$



    Putting (2) and (3) together and we have "Proof by Reduction to Absurdity", and this is why it is not intuitionistically valid. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag4, RAA$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      7












      $begingroup$

      One rule is negation-introduction; that is "If we derive a contradiction under an assumption, then we may infer that the premises entail the negation of the assumption."   This is a "Proof of Negation". $$beginsplitGamma, p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnot pendsplittag 1, $lnot$i$$



      Well, what if we derive a contradiction when we assume a negation?   Applying this rule we would infer that the premises entail the negation of that negation; ie a 'double negation'. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnotlnot pendsplittag 2$$



      This is all intuitionistically valid.   The difference between intuitionistic (contructive) and classical logic is the rule of double-negation-elimination (DNE), is only admissible under the later; it says "if we can derive a double negation of a proposition we may infer that we can derive the proposition." $$beginsplitGamma &vdash lnotlnot p\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag 3, DNE$$



      Putting (2) and (3) together and we have "Proof by Reduction to Absurdity", and this is why it is not intuitionistically valid. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag4, RAA$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        7












        7








        7





        $begingroup$

        One rule is negation-introduction; that is "If we derive a contradiction under an assumption, then we may infer that the premises entail the negation of the assumption."   This is a "Proof of Negation". $$beginsplitGamma, p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnot pendsplittag 1, $lnot$i$$



        Well, what if we derive a contradiction when we assume a negation?   Applying this rule we would infer that the premises entail the negation of that negation; ie a 'double negation'. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnotlnot pendsplittag 2$$



        This is all intuitionistically valid.   The difference between intuitionistic (contructive) and classical logic is the rule of double-negation-elimination (DNE), is only admissible under the later; it says "if we can derive a double negation of a proposition we may infer that we can derive the proposition." $$beginsplitGamma &vdash lnotlnot p\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag 3, DNE$$



        Putting (2) and (3) together and we have "Proof by Reduction to Absurdity", and this is why it is not intuitionistically valid. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag4, RAA$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        One rule is negation-introduction; that is "If we derive a contradiction under an assumption, then we may infer that the premises entail the negation of the assumption."   This is a "Proof of Negation". $$beginsplitGamma, p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnot pendsplittag 1, $lnot$i$$



        Well, what if we derive a contradiction when we assume a negation?   Applying this rule we would infer that the premises entail the negation of that negation; ie a 'double negation'. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdashlnotlnot pendsplittag 2$$



        This is all intuitionistically valid.   The difference between intuitionistic (contructive) and classical logic is the rule of double-negation-elimination (DNE), is only admissible under the later; it says "if we can derive a double negation of a proposition we may infer that we can derive the proposition." $$beginsplitGamma &vdash lnotlnot p\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag 3, DNE$$



        Putting (2) and (3) together and we have "Proof by Reduction to Absurdity", and this is why it is not intuitionistically valid. $$beginsplitGamma, lnot p&vdash bot\hlineGamma&vdash pendsplittag4, RAA$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Feb 8 at 2:31









        Graham KempGraham Kemp

        86.2k43478




        86.2k43478





















            5












            $begingroup$


            The second is how you prove negation.




            When you are proving "not $A$", you are proving "if $A$, then contradiction", because this is literally how "not $A$" is defined in constructive logic.



            When you are proving "$A$", it does not suffice to prove "if not $A$, then contradiction", because $A$ is not defined this way (that would be circular!) and there is no general rule that tells you that "if not $A$, then contradiction" implies $A$. There are situations when this does hold (for example, if $A$ is computable -- i.e., there exists a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$), but these are theorems that have to be proven rather than consequences of a general axiom like TND. (For example, when $A$ is computable -- i.e., when you know a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$ -- you can prove $A$ by proving "if not $A$, then contradiction" -- but the reason why this works is simply that you can distinguish cases based upon whether $a = operatornameTrue$ or $a = operatornameFalse$. So, on the level of axioms, you are not using TND, but rather emulating a "proof by contradiction" by inducting (= distinguishing cases) upon a boolean. If you don't know such a boolean $a$, then this trick does not work.)



            Yes, these situations are dual in a sense, but "dual" does not mean "equally true" in mathematics. Even in classical mathematics. For example, a basis of a vector space may have any cardinality, but a basis of a dual of a vector space may not :)






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Perhaps it's worth adding that TND stands for "tertium non datur" also known as LEM "law of excluded middle", which states $plor lnot p$ and is, in a sense, "the" axiom of classical logic which is not postulated by constructive logic.
              $endgroup$
              – chi
              Feb 8 at 10:32
















            5












            $begingroup$


            The second is how you prove negation.




            When you are proving "not $A$", you are proving "if $A$, then contradiction", because this is literally how "not $A$" is defined in constructive logic.



            When you are proving "$A$", it does not suffice to prove "if not $A$, then contradiction", because $A$ is not defined this way (that would be circular!) and there is no general rule that tells you that "if not $A$, then contradiction" implies $A$. There are situations when this does hold (for example, if $A$ is computable -- i.e., there exists a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$), but these are theorems that have to be proven rather than consequences of a general axiom like TND. (For example, when $A$ is computable -- i.e., when you know a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$ -- you can prove $A$ by proving "if not $A$, then contradiction" -- but the reason why this works is simply that you can distinguish cases based upon whether $a = operatornameTrue$ or $a = operatornameFalse$. So, on the level of axioms, you are not using TND, but rather emulating a "proof by contradiction" by inducting (= distinguishing cases) upon a boolean. If you don't know such a boolean $a$, then this trick does not work.)



            Yes, these situations are dual in a sense, but "dual" does not mean "equally true" in mathematics. Even in classical mathematics. For example, a basis of a vector space may have any cardinality, but a basis of a dual of a vector space may not :)






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Perhaps it's worth adding that TND stands for "tertium non datur" also known as LEM "law of excluded middle", which states $plor lnot p$ and is, in a sense, "the" axiom of classical logic which is not postulated by constructive logic.
              $endgroup$
              – chi
              Feb 8 at 10:32














            5












            5








            5





            $begingroup$


            The second is how you prove negation.




            When you are proving "not $A$", you are proving "if $A$, then contradiction", because this is literally how "not $A$" is defined in constructive logic.



            When you are proving "$A$", it does not suffice to prove "if not $A$, then contradiction", because $A$ is not defined this way (that would be circular!) and there is no general rule that tells you that "if not $A$, then contradiction" implies $A$. There are situations when this does hold (for example, if $A$ is computable -- i.e., there exists a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$), but these are theorems that have to be proven rather than consequences of a general axiom like TND. (For example, when $A$ is computable -- i.e., when you know a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$ -- you can prove $A$ by proving "if not $A$, then contradiction" -- but the reason why this works is simply that you can distinguish cases based upon whether $a = operatornameTrue$ or $a = operatornameFalse$. So, on the level of axioms, you are not using TND, but rather emulating a "proof by contradiction" by inducting (= distinguishing cases) upon a boolean. If you don't know such a boolean $a$, then this trick does not work.)



            Yes, these situations are dual in a sense, but "dual" does not mean "equally true" in mathematics. Even in classical mathematics. For example, a basis of a vector space may have any cardinality, but a basis of a dual of a vector space may not :)






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$




            The second is how you prove negation.




            When you are proving "not $A$", you are proving "if $A$, then contradiction", because this is literally how "not $A$" is defined in constructive logic.



            When you are proving "$A$", it does not suffice to prove "if not $A$, then contradiction", because $A$ is not defined this way (that would be circular!) and there is no general rule that tells you that "if not $A$, then contradiction" implies $A$. There are situations when this does hold (for example, if $A$ is computable -- i.e., there exists a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$), but these are theorems that have to be proven rather than consequences of a general axiom like TND. (For example, when $A$ is computable -- i.e., when you know a boolean $a in leftoperatornameTrue, operatornameFalseright$ such that $A Longleftrightarrow left(a = operatornameTrue right)$ -- you can prove $A$ by proving "if not $A$, then contradiction" -- but the reason why this works is simply that you can distinguish cases based upon whether $a = operatornameTrue$ or $a = operatornameFalse$. So, on the level of axioms, you are not using TND, but rather emulating a "proof by contradiction" by inducting (= distinguishing cases) upon a boolean. If you don't know such a boolean $a$, then this trick does not work.)



            Yes, these situations are dual in a sense, but "dual" does not mean "equally true" in mathematics. Even in classical mathematics. For example, a basis of a vector space may have any cardinality, but a basis of a dual of a vector space may not :)







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Feb 8 at 2:29

























            answered Feb 8 at 2:23









            darij grinbergdarij grinberg

            11k33167




            11k33167







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Perhaps it's worth adding that TND stands for "tertium non datur" also known as LEM "law of excluded middle", which states $plor lnot p$ and is, in a sense, "the" axiom of classical logic which is not postulated by constructive logic.
              $endgroup$
              – chi
              Feb 8 at 10:32













            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Perhaps it's worth adding that TND stands for "tertium non datur" also known as LEM "law of excluded middle", which states $plor lnot p$ and is, in a sense, "the" axiom of classical logic which is not postulated by constructive logic.
              $endgroup$
              – chi
              Feb 8 at 10:32








            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            Perhaps it's worth adding that TND stands for "tertium non datur" also known as LEM "law of excluded middle", which states $plor lnot p$ and is, in a sense, "the" axiom of classical logic which is not postulated by constructive logic.
            $endgroup$
            – chi
            Feb 8 at 10:32





            $begingroup$
            Perhaps it's worth adding that TND stands for "tertium non datur" also known as LEM "law of excluded middle", which states $plor lnot p$ and is, in a sense, "the" axiom of classical logic which is not postulated by constructive logic.
            $endgroup$
            – chi
            Feb 8 at 10:32


















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