Proving formula sum of product of binomial coefficients

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
5
down vote

favorite
5












I have to proof the following formula
beginalign
sum_k=0^n/2 nchoose2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k = 2nchoose n
endalign



I tried to use the fact that $2nchoose n = sum_k=0^n nchoose k^2$, but I don't get any conclusion. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question

























    up vote
    5
    down vote

    favorite
    5












    I have to proof the following formula
    beginalign
    sum_k=0^n/2 nchoose2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k = 2nchoose n
    endalign



    I tried to use the fact that $2nchoose n = sum_k=0^n nchoose k^2$, but I don't get any conclusion. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      5









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      5






      5





      I have to proof the following formula
      beginalign
      sum_k=0^n/2 nchoose2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k = 2nchoose n
      endalign



      I tried to use the fact that $2nchoose n = sum_k=0^n nchoose k^2$, but I don't get any conclusion. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question













      I have to proof the following formula
      beginalign
      sum_k=0^n/2 nchoose2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k = 2nchoose n
      endalign



      I tried to use the fact that $2nchoose n = sum_k=0^n nchoose k^2$, but I don't get any conclusion. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!







      probability combinatorics binomial-coefficients combinatorial-proofs






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Sep 27 at 9:10









      userr777

      17811




      17811




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Starting from



          $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
          nchoose 2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k$$



          we write



          $$nchoose 2k 2kchoose k =
          fracn!(n-2k)! times k! times k!
          = nchoose k n-kchoose k$$



          to obtain



          $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
          nchoose k 2^n-2k n-kchoose n-2k
          \ = sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
          nchoose k 2^n-2k [z^n-2k] (1+z)^n-k
          \ = [z^n] sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
          nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^n-k 2^n-2k.$$



          Now when $2kgt n$ there is no contribution to the coefficient
          extractor and we may write



          $$ [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n sum_kge 0
          nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^-k 2^-2k
          \ = [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n (1+z^2/(1+z)/2^2)^n
          \ = frac12^n [z^n] (2^2+2^2z+z^2)^n
          = frac12^n [z^n] (z+2)^2n
          = frac12^n 2nchoose n 2^n = 2nchoose n.$$



          This is the claim.






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            up vote
            4
            down vote













            Define the following two sets:
            $$mathcalA = x in 0, 1, 2, 3^n : mboxa number of $1$'s in $x$ and a number of $0$'s in $x$ are the same .$$



            $$mathcalB = yin0, 1^2n : mboxthere are $n$ ones in $y$ .$$



            Note that $|mathcalA|$ equals the left hand side and $|mathcalB|$ equals the right hand side. All that remains to do is to come up with a bijection between $mathcalA$ and $mathcalB$.



            Define the following mapping
            $$phi : mathcalA to mathcalB,$$
            $$phi(x_1ldots x_n) = psi(x_1)ldots psi(x_n),$$
            where $psi$ is a mapping from $0, 1, 2, 3$ to $0, 1^2$, defined as follows
            $$psi(0) = 00, psi(1) = 11, psi(2) = 01, psi(3) = 10.$$



            It's obvious that $phi$ is bijective. To show it formally you just have to notice the following thing. Take any $yin0, 1^2n$. Split $y$ into $n$ blocks of 2 consecutive bits. Then $yinmathcalB$ iff a number of $00$-blocks and a number of $11$-blocs are the same.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















              Your Answer




              StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
              return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
              StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
              StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
              );
              );
              , "mathjax-editing");

              StackExchange.ready(function()
              var channelOptions =
              tags: "".split(" "),
              id: "69"
              ;
              initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

              StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
              // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
              if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
              StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
              createEditor();
              );

              else
              createEditor();

              );

              function createEditor()
              StackExchange.prepareEditor(
              heartbeatType: 'answer',
              convertImagesToLinks: true,
              noModals: false,
              showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
              reputationToPostImages: 10,
              bindNavPrevention: true,
              postfix: "",
              noCode: true, onDemand: true,
              discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
              ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
              );



              );













               

              draft saved


              draft discarded


















              StackExchange.ready(
              function ()
              StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2932845%2fproving-formula-sum-of-product-of-binomial-coefficients%23new-answer', 'question_page');

              );

              Post as a guest






























              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              4
              down vote



              accepted










              Starting from



              $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
              nchoose 2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k$$



              we write



              $$nchoose 2k 2kchoose k =
              fracn!(n-2k)! times k! times k!
              = nchoose k n-kchoose k$$



              to obtain



              $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
              nchoose k 2^n-2k n-kchoose n-2k
              \ = sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
              nchoose k 2^n-2k [z^n-2k] (1+z)^n-k
              \ = [z^n] sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
              nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^n-k 2^n-2k.$$



              Now when $2kgt n$ there is no contribution to the coefficient
              extractor and we may write



              $$ [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n sum_kge 0
              nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^-k 2^-2k
              \ = [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n (1+z^2/(1+z)/2^2)^n
              \ = frac12^n [z^n] (2^2+2^2z+z^2)^n
              = frac12^n [z^n] (z+2)^2n
              = frac12^n 2nchoose n 2^n = 2nchoose n.$$



              This is the claim.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                4
                down vote



                accepted










                Starting from



                $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                nchoose 2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k$$



                we write



                $$nchoose 2k 2kchoose k =
                fracn!(n-2k)! times k! times k!
                = nchoose k n-kchoose k$$



                to obtain



                $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                nchoose k 2^n-2k n-kchoose n-2k
                \ = sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                nchoose k 2^n-2k [z^n-2k] (1+z)^n-k
                \ = [z^n] sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^n-k 2^n-2k.$$



                Now when $2kgt n$ there is no contribution to the coefficient
                extractor and we may write



                $$ [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n sum_kge 0
                nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^-k 2^-2k
                \ = [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n (1+z^2/(1+z)/2^2)^n
                \ = frac12^n [z^n] (2^2+2^2z+z^2)^n
                = frac12^n [z^n] (z+2)^2n
                = frac12^n 2nchoose n 2^n = 2nchoose n.$$



                This is the claim.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  4
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  4
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  Starting from



                  $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                  nchoose 2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k$$



                  we write



                  $$nchoose 2k 2kchoose k =
                  fracn!(n-2k)! times k! times k!
                  = nchoose k n-kchoose k$$



                  to obtain



                  $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                  nchoose k 2^n-2k n-kchoose n-2k
                  \ = sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                  nchoose k 2^n-2k [z^n-2k] (1+z)^n-k
                  \ = [z^n] sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                  nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^n-k 2^n-2k.$$



                  Now when $2kgt n$ there is no contribution to the coefficient
                  extractor and we may write



                  $$ [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n sum_kge 0
                  nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^-k 2^-2k
                  \ = [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n (1+z^2/(1+z)/2^2)^n
                  \ = frac12^n [z^n] (2^2+2^2z+z^2)^n
                  = frac12^n [z^n] (z+2)^2n
                  = frac12^n 2nchoose n 2^n = 2nchoose n.$$



                  This is the claim.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Starting from



                  $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                  nchoose 2k 2kchoose k 2^n-2k$$



                  we write



                  $$nchoose 2k 2kchoose k =
                  fracn!(n-2k)! times k! times k!
                  = nchoose k n-kchoose k$$



                  to obtain



                  $$sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                  nchoose k 2^n-2k n-kchoose n-2k
                  \ = sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                  nchoose k 2^n-2k [z^n-2k] (1+z)^n-k
                  \ = [z^n] sum_k=0^lfloor n/2 rfloor
                  nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^n-k 2^n-2k.$$



                  Now when $2kgt n$ there is no contribution to the coefficient
                  extractor and we may write



                  $$ [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n sum_kge 0
                  nchoose k z^2k (1+z)^-k 2^-2k
                  \ = [z^n] 2^n (1+z)^n (1+z^2/(1+z)/2^2)^n
                  \ = frac12^n [z^n] (2^2+2^2z+z^2)^n
                  = frac12^n [z^n] (z+2)^2n
                  = frac12^n 2nchoose n 2^n = 2nchoose n.$$



                  This is the claim.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Sep 27 at 12:21

























                  answered Sep 27 at 12:14









                  Marko Riedel

                  37.3k335106




                  37.3k335106




















                      up vote
                      4
                      down vote













                      Define the following two sets:
                      $$mathcalA = x in 0, 1, 2, 3^n : mboxa number of $1$'s in $x$ and a number of $0$'s in $x$ are the same .$$



                      $$mathcalB = yin0, 1^2n : mboxthere are $n$ ones in $y$ .$$



                      Note that $|mathcalA|$ equals the left hand side and $|mathcalB|$ equals the right hand side. All that remains to do is to come up with a bijection between $mathcalA$ and $mathcalB$.



                      Define the following mapping
                      $$phi : mathcalA to mathcalB,$$
                      $$phi(x_1ldots x_n) = psi(x_1)ldots psi(x_n),$$
                      where $psi$ is a mapping from $0, 1, 2, 3$ to $0, 1^2$, defined as follows
                      $$psi(0) = 00, psi(1) = 11, psi(2) = 01, psi(3) = 10.$$



                      It's obvious that $phi$ is bijective. To show it formally you just have to notice the following thing. Take any $yin0, 1^2n$. Split $y$ into $n$ blocks of 2 consecutive bits. Then $yinmathcalB$ iff a number of $00$-blocks and a number of $11$-blocs are the same.






                      share|cite|improve this answer
























                        up vote
                        4
                        down vote













                        Define the following two sets:
                        $$mathcalA = x in 0, 1, 2, 3^n : mboxa number of $1$'s in $x$ and a number of $0$'s in $x$ are the same .$$



                        $$mathcalB = yin0, 1^2n : mboxthere are $n$ ones in $y$ .$$



                        Note that $|mathcalA|$ equals the left hand side and $|mathcalB|$ equals the right hand side. All that remains to do is to come up with a bijection between $mathcalA$ and $mathcalB$.



                        Define the following mapping
                        $$phi : mathcalA to mathcalB,$$
                        $$phi(x_1ldots x_n) = psi(x_1)ldots psi(x_n),$$
                        where $psi$ is a mapping from $0, 1, 2, 3$ to $0, 1^2$, defined as follows
                        $$psi(0) = 00, psi(1) = 11, psi(2) = 01, psi(3) = 10.$$



                        It's obvious that $phi$ is bijective. To show it formally you just have to notice the following thing. Take any $yin0, 1^2n$. Split $y$ into $n$ blocks of 2 consecutive bits. Then $yinmathcalB$ iff a number of $00$-blocks and a number of $11$-blocs are the same.






                        share|cite|improve this answer






















                          up vote
                          4
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          4
                          down vote









                          Define the following two sets:
                          $$mathcalA = x in 0, 1, 2, 3^n : mboxa number of $1$'s in $x$ and a number of $0$'s in $x$ are the same .$$



                          $$mathcalB = yin0, 1^2n : mboxthere are $n$ ones in $y$ .$$



                          Note that $|mathcalA|$ equals the left hand side and $|mathcalB|$ equals the right hand side. All that remains to do is to come up with a bijection between $mathcalA$ and $mathcalB$.



                          Define the following mapping
                          $$phi : mathcalA to mathcalB,$$
                          $$phi(x_1ldots x_n) = psi(x_1)ldots psi(x_n),$$
                          where $psi$ is a mapping from $0, 1, 2, 3$ to $0, 1^2$, defined as follows
                          $$psi(0) = 00, psi(1) = 11, psi(2) = 01, psi(3) = 10.$$



                          It's obvious that $phi$ is bijective. To show it formally you just have to notice the following thing. Take any $yin0, 1^2n$. Split $y$ into $n$ blocks of 2 consecutive bits. Then $yinmathcalB$ iff a number of $00$-blocks and a number of $11$-blocs are the same.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Define the following two sets:
                          $$mathcalA = x in 0, 1, 2, 3^n : mboxa number of $1$'s in $x$ and a number of $0$'s in $x$ are the same .$$



                          $$mathcalB = yin0, 1^2n : mboxthere are $n$ ones in $y$ .$$



                          Note that $|mathcalA|$ equals the left hand side and $|mathcalB|$ equals the right hand side. All that remains to do is to come up with a bijection between $mathcalA$ and $mathcalB$.



                          Define the following mapping
                          $$phi : mathcalA to mathcalB,$$
                          $$phi(x_1ldots x_n) = psi(x_1)ldots psi(x_n),$$
                          where $psi$ is a mapping from $0, 1, 2, 3$ to $0, 1^2$, defined as follows
                          $$psi(0) = 00, psi(1) = 11, psi(2) = 01, psi(3) = 10.$$



                          It's obvious that $phi$ is bijective. To show it formally you just have to notice the following thing. Take any $yin0, 1^2n$. Split $y$ into $n$ blocks of 2 consecutive bits. Then $yinmathcalB$ iff a number of $00$-blocks and a number of $11$-blocs are the same.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Sep 27 at 9:55









                          Sasha Kozachinskiy

                          72918




                          72918



























                               

                              draft saved


                              draft discarded















































                               


                              draft saved


                              draft discarded














                              StackExchange.ready(
                              function ()
                              StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2932845%2fproving-formula-sum-of-product-of-binomial-coefficients%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                              );

                              Post as a guest













































































                              Popular posts from this blog

                              Peggy Mitchell

                              Palaiologos

                              The Forum (Inglewood, California)