Limit of matrix $A$ raised to power of $n$, as $n$ approaches infinity.

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I understand that the limit of n approaching infinity of a matrix $A^n$, can be computed, in some cases, by looking at the diagonalization of that matrix, and then looking at the limit of n going to infinity of the resulting diagonal matrix, $D$, whose elements are raised to the power n.



What I do not understand is when we do not raise the matrix, call it $P$, consisting of the eigenvectors of $A$, and its inverse, to the power of n as well?



So:



$ P^-1AP = D $



$A = PDP^-1 $



$A^n = (PDP^-1)^n$



$A^n = P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$



Why do the matrices $P^n$ and $(P^-1)^n$ not have to be taken into account when looking at the limit of n going to infinity?










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    up vote
    7
    down vote

    favorite












    I understand that the limit of n approaching infinity of a matrix $A^n$, can be computed, in some cases, by looking at the diagonalization of that matrix, and then looking at the limit of n going to infinity of the resulting diagonal matrix, $D$, whose elements are raised to the power n.



    What I do not understand is when we do not raise the matrix, call it $P$, consisting of the eigenvectors of $A$, and its inverse, to the power of n as well?



    So:



    $ P^-1AP = D $



    $A = PDP^-1 $



    $A^n = (PDP^-1)^n$



    $A^n = P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$



    Why do the matrices $P^n$ and $(P^-1)^n$ not have to be taken into account when looking at the limit of n going to infinity?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite











      I understand that the limit of n approaching infinity of a matrix $A^n$, can be computed, in some cases, by looking at the diagonalization of that matrix, and then looking at the limit of n going to infinity of the resulting diagonal matrix, $D$, whose elements are raised to the power n.



      What I do not understand is when we do not raise the matrix, call it $P$, consisting of the eigenvectors of $A$, and its inverse, to the power of n as well?



      So:



      $ P^-1AP = D $



      $A = PDP^-1 $



      $A^n = (PDP^-1)^n$



      $A^n = P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$



      Why do the matrices $P^n$ and $(P^-1)^n$ not have to be taken into account when looking at the limit of n going to infinity?










      share|cite|improve this question















      I understand that the limit of n approaching infinity of a matrix $A^n$, can be computed, in some cases, by looking at the diagonalization of that matrix, and then looking at the limit of n going to infinity of the resulting diagonal matrix, $D$, whose elements are raised to the power n.



      What I do not understand is when we do not raise the matrix, call it $P$, consisting of the eigenvectors of $A$, and its inverse, to the power of n as well?



      So:



      $ P^-1AP = D $



      $A = PDP^-1 $



      $A^n = (PDP^-1)^n$



      $A^n = P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$



      Why do the matrices $P^n$ and $(P^-1)^n$ not have to be taken into account when looking at the limit of n going to infinity?







      linear-algebra matrices limits






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      edited Nov 19 at 17:41









      Xander Henderson

      13.8k93552




      13.8k93552










      asked Nov 18 at 22:26









      Tyna

      826




      826




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          24
          down vote













          In general, the statement
          $$
          (AB)^n=A^nB^n
          $$

          is false for square matrices. So it's not true in general that, from $A=PDP^-1$ it follows that $A^n=P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$.



          Rather you should note that
          $$
          A^2=(PDP^-1)(PDP^-1)=PDP^-1PDP^-1=PDDP^-1=PD^2P^-1
          $$

          and, by easy induction,
          $$
          A^n=PD^nP^-1
          $$

          for every $n$. Do you see the difference?



          Now, in order to compute the limit, it is sufficient to compute the limit of $D^n$, because matrix multiplication is continuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Perhaps it is worth remarking that we do still have $P$ and $P^-$ to take into account, but that is straightforward and we do not have to worry what $P^n$ might be.
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:23











          • @PJTraill Isn't the “Rather” part covering it?
            – egreg
            Nov 19 at 14:25










          • Formally it certainly does, but given the level of the questioner I thought one might make that explicit (though an alternative would be to nudge them to chew on some thought inclining them in that direction).
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:26


















          up vote
          13
          down vote













          We have that



          $$A = PDP^-1implies A^2 = PDP^-1 PDP^-1= PD(P^-1P)DP^-1= PD (I)DP^-1=PD^2P^-1$$



          and so on we can generalize the result rigorously for any $n$ by induction.






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 4




            thank you! the "inner" factors on $P$ and $P^-1$ will cancel and you'll only be left with the one $P$ and its inverse.
            – Tyna
            Nov 18 at 22:32







          • 2




            @Tyna Yes exactly and then we can generalize that for any $n$ (rigoursly by induction).
            – gimusi
            Nov 18 at 22:34










          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          24
          down vote













          In general, the statement
          $$
          (AB)^n=A^nB^n
          $$

          is false for square matrices. So it's not true in general that, from $A=PDP^-1$ it follows that $A^n=P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$.



          Rather you should note that
          $$
          A^2=(PDP^-1)(PDP^-1)=PDP^-1PDP^-1=PDDP^-1=PD^2P^-1
          $$

          and, by easy induction,
          $$
          A^n=PD^nP^-1
          $$

          for every $n$. Do you see the difference?



          Now, in order to compute the limit, it is sufficient to compute the limit of $D^n$, because matrix multiplication is continuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Perhaps it is worth remarking that we do still have $P$ and $P^-$ to take into account, but that is straightforward and we do not have to worry what $P^n$ might be.
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:23











          • @PJTraill Isn't the “Rather” part covering it?
            – egreg
            Nov 19 at 14:25










          • Formally it certainly does, but given the level of the questioner I thought one might make that explicit (though an alternative would be to nudge them to chew on some thought inclining them in that direction).
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:26















          up vote
          24
          down vote













          In general, the statement
          $$
          (AB)^n=A^nB^n
          $$

          is false for square matrices. So it's not true in general that, from $A=PDP^-1$ it follows that $A^n=P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$.



          Rather you should note that
          $$
          A^2=(PDP^-1)(PDP^-1)=PDP^-1PDP^-1=PDDP^-1=PD^2P^-1
          $$

          and, by easy induction,
          $$
          A^n=PD^nP^-1
          $$

          for every $n$. Do you see the difference?



          Now, in order to compute the limit, it is sufficient to compute the limit of $D^n$, because matrix multiplication is continuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Perhaps it is worth remarking that we do still have $P$ and $P^-$ to take into account, but that is straightforward and we do not have to worry what $P^n$ might be.
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:23











          • @PJTraill Isn't the “Rather” part covering it?
            – egreg
            Nov 19 at 14:25










          • Formally it certainly does, but given the level of the questioner I thought one might make that explicit (though an alternative would be to nudge them to chew on some thought inclining them in that direction).
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:26













          up vote
          24
          down vote










          up vote
          24
          down vote









          In general, the statement
          $$
          (AB)^n=A^nB^n
          $$

          is false for square matrices. So it's not true in general that, from $A=PDP^-1$ it follows that $A^n=P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$.



          Rather you should note that
          $$
          A^2=(PDP^-1)(PDP^-1)=PDP^-1PDP^-1=PDDP^-1=PD^2P^-1
          $$

          and, by easy induction,
          $$
          A^n=PD^nP^-1
          $$

          for every $n$. Do you see the difference?



          Now, in order to compute the limit, it is sufficient to compute the limit of $D^n$, because matrix multiplication is continuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          In general, the statement
          $$
          (AB)^n=A^nB^n
          $$

          is false for square matrices. So it's not true in general that, from $A=PDP^-1$ it follows that $A^n=P^nD^n(P^-1)^n$.



          Rather you should note that
          $$
          A^2=(PDP^-1)(PDP^-1)=PDP^-1PDP^-1=PDDP^-1=PD^2P^-1
          $$

          and, by easy induction,
          $$
          A^n=PD^nP^-1
          $$

          for every $n$. Do you see the difference?



          Now, in order to compute the limit, it is sufficient to compute the limit of $D^n$, because matrix multiplication is continuous.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 19 at 14:38

























          answered Nov 18 at 22:35









          egreg

          173k1383198




          173k1383198











          • Perhaps it is worth remarking that we do still have $P$ and $P^-$ to take into account, but that is straightforward and we do not have to worry what $P^n$ might be.
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:23











          • @PJTraill Isn't the “Rather” part covering it?
            – egreg
            Nov 19 at 14:25










          • Formally it certainly does, but given the level of the questioner I thought one might make that explicit (though an alternative would be to nudge them to chew on some thought inclining them in that direction).
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:26

















          • Perhaps it is worth remarking that we do still have $P$ and $P^-$ to take into account, but that is straightforward and we do not have to worry what $P^n$ might be.
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:23











          • @PJTraill Isn't the “Rather” part covering it?
            – egreg
            Nov 19 at 14:25










          • Formally it certainly does, but given the level of the questioner I thought one might make that explicit (though an alternative would be to nudge them to chew on some thought inclining them in that direction).
            – PJTraill
            Nov 19 at 14:26
















          Perhaps it is worth remarking that we do still have $P$ and $P^-$ to take into account, but that is straightforward and we do not have to worry what $P^n$ might be.
          – PJTraill
          Nov 19 at 14:23





          Perhaps it is worth remarking that we do still have $P$ and $P^-$ to take into account, but that is straightforward and we do not have to worry what $P^n$ might be.
          – PJTraill
          Nov 19 at 14:23













          @PJTraill Isn't the “Rather” part covering it?
          – egreg
          Nov 19 at 14:25




          @PJTraill Isn't the “Rather” part covering it?
          – egreg
          Nov 19 at 14:25












          Formally it certainly does, but given the level of the questioner I thought one might make that explicit (though an alternative would be to nudge them to chew on some thought inclining them in that direction).
          – PJTraill
          Nov 19 at 14:26





          Formally it certainly does, but given the level of the questioner I thought one might make that explicit (though an alternative would be to nudge them to chew on some thought inclining them in that direction).
          – PJTraill
          Nov 19 at 14:26











          up vote
          13
          down vote













          We have that



          $$A = PDP^-1implies A^2 = PDP^-1 PDP^-1= PD(P^-1P)DP^-1= PD (I)DP^-1=PD^2P^-1$$



          and so on we can generalize the result rigorously for any $n$ by induction.






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 4




            thank you! the "inner" factors on $P$ and $P^-1$ will cancel and you'll only be left with the one $P$ and its inverse.
            – Tyna
            Nov 18 at 22:32







          • 2




            @Tyna Yes exactly and then we can generalize that for any $n$ (rigoursly by induction).
            – gimusi
            Nov 18 at 22:34














          up vote
          13
          down vote













          We have that



          $$A = PDP^-1implies A^2 = PDP^-1 PDP^-1= PD(P^-1P)DP^-1= PD (I)DP^-1=PD^2P^-1$$



          and so on we can generalize the result rigorously for any $n$ by induction.






          share|cite|improve this answer


















          • 4




            thank you! the "inner" factors on $P$ and $P^-1$ will cancel and you'll only be left with the one $P$ and its inverse.
            – Tyna
            Nov 18 at 22:32







          • 2




            @Tyna Yes exactly and then we can generalize that for any $n$ (rigoursly by induction).
            – gimusi
            Nov 18 at 22:34












          up vote
          13
          down vote










          up vote
          13
          down vote









          We have that



          $$A = PDP^-1implies A^2 = PDP^-1 PDP^-1= PD(P^-1P)DP^-1= PD (I)DP^-1=PD^2P^-1$$



          and so on we can generalize the result rigorously for any $n$ by induction.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          We have that



          $$A = PDP^-1implies A^2 = PDP^-1 PDP^-1= PD(P^-1P)DP^-1= PD (I)DP^-1=PD^2P^-1$$



          and so on we can generalize the result rigorously for any $n$ by induction.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 19 at 14:24

























          answered Nov 18 at 22:28









          gimusi

          86.3k74392




          86.3k74392







          • 4




            thank you! the "inner" factors on $P$ and $P^-1$ will cancel and you'll only be left with the one $P$ and its inverse.
            – Tyna
            Nov 18 at 22:32







          • 2




            @Tyna Yes exactly and then we can generalize that for any $n$ (rigoursly by induction).
            – gimusi
            Nov 18 at 22:34












          • 4




            thank you! the "inner" factors on $P$ and $P^-1$ will cancel and you'll only be left with the one $P$ and its inverse.
            – Tyna
            Nov 18 at 22:32







          • 2




            @Tyna Yes exactly and then we can generalize that for any $n$ (rigoursly by induction).
            – gimusi
            Nov 18 at 22:34







          4




          4




          thank you! the "inner" factors on $P$ and $P^-1$ will cancel and you'll only be left with the one $P$ and its inverse.
          – Tyna
          Nov 18 at 22:32





          thank you! the "inner" factors on $P$ and $P^-1$ will cancel and you'll only be left with the one $P$ and its inverse.
          – Tyna
          Nov 18 at 22:32





          2




          2




          @Tyna Yes exactly and then we can generalize that for any $n$ (rigoursly by induction).
          – gimusi
          Nov 18 at 22:34




          @Tyna Yes exactly and then we can generalize that for any $n$ (rigoursly by induction).
          – gimusi
          Nov 18 at 22:34

















           

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