Meaning of âWhy Has Love Got To Be So Sadâ
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?
Edited:
Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".
By the comments here I saw that there are another version for the lyrics: "Why Does Love Got to Be So Sad", and for this version is even more not understood, since after an interrogative sentence in present simple tense should come infinitive ("Why does love get to be so sad") rather than past form (got).
meaning-in-context
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?
Edited:
Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".
By the comments here I saw that there are another version for the lyrics: "Why Does Love Got to Be So Sad", and for this version is even more not understood, since after an interrogative sentence in present simple tense should come infinitive ("Why does love get to be so sad") rather than past form (got).
meaning-in-context
1
The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
â FumbleFingers
4 hours ago
1
FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
â hobbs
2 hours ago
To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
â jpmc26
8 mins ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?
Edited:
Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".
By the comments here I saw that there are another version for the lyrics: "Why Does Love Got to Be So Sad", and for this version is even more not understood, since after an interrogative sentence in present simple tense should come infinitive ("Why does love get to be so sad") rather than past form (got).
meaning-in-context
I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?
Edited:
Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".
By the comments here I saw that there are another version for the lyrics: "Why Does Love Got to Be So Sad", and for this version is even more not understood, since after an interrogative sentence in present simple tense should come infinitive ("Why does love get to be so sad") rather than past form (got).
meaning-in-context
meaning-in-context
edited 1 min ago
asked 5 hours ago
Conceivable assessment
10.4k50161296
10.4k50161296
1
The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
â FumbleFingers
4 hours ago
1
FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
â hobbs
2 hours ago
To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
â jpmc26
8 mins ago
add a comment |Â
1
The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
â FumbleFingers
4 hours ago
1
FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
â hobbs
2 hours ago
To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
â jpmc26
8 mins ago
1
1
The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
â FumbleFingers
4 hours ago
The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
â FumbleFingers
4 hours ago
1
1
FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
â hobbs
2 hours ago
FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
â hobbs
2 hours ago
To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
â jpmc26
8 mins ago
To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
â jpmc26
8 mins ago
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad
What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.
When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.
In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?
2
Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
â Alberto Solano
5 hours ago
[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
â Lambie
4 hours ago
1
I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
â Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago
@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
â Alberto Solano
4 hours ago
books.google.com/â¦
â Tá´ÂoïÃÂuo
3 hours ago
 |Â
show 3 more comments
up vote
3
down vote
The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means
Why must love be so sad?
Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.
Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement
Why does love happen to be so sad? - question
Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement
Why does love have to be so sad? - statement
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Why has love got to be so sad?
In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).
to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.
- I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.
- I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
- I must go. She must be kidding.
The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:
To have to be something=To have got to be something.
Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.
Please note:
Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad
What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.
When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.
In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?
2
Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
â Alberto Solano
5 hours ago
[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
â Lambie
4 hours ago
1
I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
â Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago
@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
â Alberto Solano
4 hours ago
books.google.com/â¦
â Tá´ÂoïÃÂuo
3 hours ago
 |Â
show 3 more comments
up vote
4
down vote
Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad
What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.
When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.
In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?
2
Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
â Alberto Solano
5 hours ago
[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
â Lambie
4 hours ago
1
I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
â Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago
@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
â Alberto Solano
4 hours ago
books.google.com/â¦
â Tá´ÂoïÃÂuo
3 hours ago
 |Â
show 3 more comments
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad
What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.
When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.
In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?
Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad
What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.
When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.
In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?
edited 4 hours ago
answered 5 hours ago
Alberto Solano
28216
28216
2
Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
â Alberto Solano
5 hours ago
[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
â Lambie
4 hours ago
1
I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
â Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago
@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
â Alberto Solano
4 hours ago
books.google.com/â¦
â Tá´ÂoïÃÂuo
3 hours ago
 |Â
show 3 more comments
2
Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
â Alberto Solano
5 hours ago
[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
â Lambie
4 hours ago
1
I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
â Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago
@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
â Alberto Solano
4 hours ago
books.google.com/â¦
â Tá´ÂoïÃÂuo
3 hours ago
2
2
Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
â Alberto Solano
5 hours ago
Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
â Alberto Solano
5 hours ago
[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
â Lambie
4 hours ago
[not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
â Lambie
4 hours ago
1
1
I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
â Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago
I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
â Conceivable assessment
4 hours ago
@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
â Alberto Solano
4 hours ago
@Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
â Alberto Solano
4 hours ago
books.google.com/â¦
â Tá´ÂoïÃÂuo
3 hours ago
books.google.com/â¦
â Tá´ÂoïÃÂuo
3 hours ago
 |Â
show 3 more comments
up vote
3
down vote
The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means
Why must love be so sad?
Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.
Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement
Why does love happen to be so sad? - question
Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement
Why does love have to be so sad? - statement
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means
Why must love be so sad?
Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.
Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement
Why does love happen to be so sad? - question
Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement
Why does love have to be so sad? - statement
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means
Why must love be so sad?
Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.
Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement
Why does love happen to be so sad? - question
Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement
Why does love have to be so sad? - statement
The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means
Why must love be so sad?
Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.
Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement
Why does love happen to be so sad? - question
Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement
Why does love have to be so sad? - statement
answered 5 hours ago
JavaLatte
37k23884
37k23884
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Why has love got to be so sad?
In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).
to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.
- I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.
- I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
- I must go. She must be kidding.
The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:
To have to be something=To have got to be something.
Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.
Please note:
Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Why has love got to be so sad?
In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).
to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.
- I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.
- I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
- I must go. She must be kidding.
The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:
To have to be something=To have got to be something.
Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.
Please note:
Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Why has love got to be so sad?
In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).
to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.
- I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.
- I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
- I must go. She must be kidding.
The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:
To have to be something=To have got to be something.
Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.
Please note:
Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.
Why has love got to be so sad?
In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).
to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.
- I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.
- I have to go now. She has to be kidding.
- I must go. She must be kidding.
The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:
To have to be something=To have got to be something.
Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.
Please note:
Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.
edited 1 hour ago
answered 4 hours ago
Lambie
12.5k1331
12.5k1331
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fell.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f182367%2fmeaning-of-why-has-love-got-to-be-so-sad%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
1
The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
â FumbleFingers
4 hours ago
1
FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
â hobbs
2 hours ago
To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
â jpmc26
8 mins ago