Meaning of “Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad”

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I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?




Edited:



  1. Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".


  2. By the comments here I saw that there are another version for the lyrics: "Why Does Love Got to Be So Sad", and for this version is even more not understood, since after an interrogative sentence in present simple tense should come infinitive ("Why does love get to be so sad") rather than past form (got).










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  • 1




    The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
    – FumbleFingers
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
    – hobbs
    2 hours ago










  • To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
    – jpmc26
    8 mins ago

















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1












I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?




Edited:



  1. Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".


  2. By the comments here I saw that there are another version for the lyrics: "Why Does Love Got to Be So Sad", and for this version is even more not understood, since after an interrogative sentence in present simple tense should come infinitive ("Why does love get to be so sad") rather than past form (got).










share|improve this question



















  • 1




    The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
    – FumbleFingers
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
    – hobbs
    2 hours ago










  • To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
    – jpmc26
    8 mins ago













up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1






1





I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?




Edited:



  1. Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".


  2. By the comments here I saw that there are another version for the lyrics: "Why Does Love Got to Be So Sad", and for this version is even more not understood, since after an interrogative sentence in present simple tense should come infinitive ("Why does love get to be so sad") rather than past form (got).










share|improve this question















I saw a song of Eric Clapton in which he says "Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad". This kind of structure is a little difficult to me to understand as an non native English speaker. In the simple interpretation of words, does it mean (in other words) to ask "Why love happens to be so sad?" or "Why love has to be so sad"?




Edited:



  1. Well, I knew what it means "I have got to do sth", but in this case the structure of "whay has love got..." is the difficult thing. I'd expect him to say "has got love to" if he wants to say "why love must be so sad".


  2. By the comments here I saw that there are another version for the lyrics: "Why Does Love Got to Be So Sad", and for this version is even more not understood, since after an interrogative sentence in present simple tense should come infinitive ("Why does love get to be so sad") rather than past form (got).







meaning-in-context






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edited 1 min ago

























asked 5 hours ago









Conceivable assessment

10.4k50161296




10.4k50161296







  • 1




    The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
    – FumbleFingers
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
    – hobbs
    2 hours ago










  • To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
    – jpmc26
    8 mins ago













  • 1




    The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
    – FumbleFingers
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
    – hobbs
    2 hours ago










  • To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
    – jpmc26
    8 mins ago








1




1




The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
– FumbleFingers
4 hours ago




The words Why love happens to be so sad and Why love has to be so sad are not questions. They're just noun phrases syntactically equivalent to He told me the answer (or, for example, He told me why love has to be so sad.
– FumbleFingers
4 hours ago




1




1




FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
– hobbs
2 hours ago




FWIW the song is actually "Why does love got to be so sad", not "has".
– hobbs
2 hours ago












To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
– jpmc26
8 mins ago





To back up @hobbs, it's even right there in the video title and description. Honestly not sure where the "has" comes from.
– jpmc26
8 mins ago











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote














Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad




What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.



When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.



In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?






share|improve this answer


















  • 2




    Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
    – Alberto Solano
    5 hours ago










  • [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
    – Lambie
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
    – Conceivable assessment
    4 hours ago










  • @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
    – Alberto Solano
    4 hours ago










  • books.google.com/…
    – Tᴚoɯɐuo
    3 hours ago

















up vote
3
down vote













The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means




Why must love be so sad?







Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.


Love happens to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

Love has to be so sad. - statement
Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

Why does love have to be so sad? - statement







share|improve this answer



























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Why has love got to be so sad?



    In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).



    to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.




    • I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.

    • I have to go now. She has to be kidding.

    • I must go. She must be kidding.



    The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:



    To have to be something=To have got to be something.



    Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.



    Please note:




    Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.







    share|improve this answer






















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      4
      down vote














      Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad




      What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.



      When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.



      In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?






      share|improve this answer


















      • 2




        Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
        – Alberto Solano
        5 hours ago










      • [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
        – Lambie
        4 hours ago






      • 1




        I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
        – Conceivable assessment
        4 hours ago










      • @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
        – Alberto Solano
        4 hours ago










      • books.google.com/…
        – Tᴚoɯɐuo
        3 hours ago














      up vote
      4
      down vote














      Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad




      What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.



      When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.



      In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?






      share|improve this answer


















      • 2




        Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
        – Alberto Solano
        5 hours ago










      • [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
        – Lambie
        4 hours ago






      • 1




        I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
        – Conceivable assessment
        4 hours ago










      • @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
        – Alberto Solano
        4 hours ago










      • books.google.com/…
        – Tᴚoɯɐuo
        3 hours ago












      up vote
      4
      down vote










      up vote
      4
      down vote










      Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad




      What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.



      When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.



      In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?






      share|improve this answer















      Why Has Love Got To Be So Sad




      What couldn't be so easy to you understand is the usage of have got to.



      When you use have got to, you're saying that something is necessary or must happen in the way stated in the sentence.



      In the question, Eric Clapton is wondering, in other terms: Why must love be so sad?







      share|improve this answer














      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer








      edited 4 hours ago

























      answered 5 hours ago









      Alberto Solano

      28216




      28216







      • 2




        Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
        – Alberto Solano
        5 hours ago










      • [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
        – Lambie
        4 hours ago






      • 1




        I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
        – Conceivable assessment
        4 hours ago










      • @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
        – Alberto Solano
        4 hours ago










      • books.google.com/…
        – Tᴚoɯɐuo
        3 hours ago












      • 2




        Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
        – Alberto Solano
        5 hours ago










      • [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
        – Lambie
        4 hours ago






      • 1




        I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
        – Conceivable assessment
        4 hours ago










      • @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
        – Alberto Solano
        4 hours ago










      • books.google.com/…
        – Tᴚoɯɐuo
        3 hours ago







      2




      2




      Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
      – Alberto Solano
      5 hours ago




      Clicking the down arrow without giving any explanation is always so helpful...
      – Alberto Solano
      5 hours ago












      [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
      – Lambie
      4 hours ago




      [not the dv] have got to be is not present perfect and [so easy for you to understand]. Have got is an alternative form of the present tense, used in speaking: to have or to have got.
      – Lambie
      4 hours ago




      1




      1




      I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
      – Conceivable assessment
      4 hours ago




      I'm not the downvoter, and I agree with you that some explanation should be added while downvoting.
      – Conceivable assessment
      4 hours ago












      @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
      – Alberto Solano
      4 hours ago




      @Lambie Yes, indeed when I first read the sentence I mixed up present perfect with the usage of have got to. When I updated the answer the proper usage of have got to, I forgot to remove indeed that reference. Thanks!
      – Alberto Solano
      4 hours ago












      books.google.com/…
      – Tᴚoɯɐuo
      3 hours ago




      books.google.com/…
      – Tᴚoɯɐuo
      3 hours ago












      up vote
      3
      down vote













      The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means




      Why must love be so sad?







      Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.


      Love happens to be so sad. - statement
      Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

      Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

      Love has to be so sad. - statement
      Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

      Why does love have to be so sad? - statement







      share|improve this answer
























        up vote
        3
        down vote













        The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means




        Why must love be so sad?







        Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.


        Love happens to be so sad. - statement
        Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

        Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

        Love has to be so sad. - statement
        Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

        Why does love have to be so sad? - statement







        share|improve this answer






















          up vote
          3
          down vote










          up vote
          3
          down vote









          The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means




          Why must love be so sad?







          Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.


          Love happens to be so sad. - statement
          Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

          Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

          Love has to be so sad. - statement
          Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

          Why does love have to be so sad? - statement







          share|improve this answer












          The best way to interpret this is to assume that have got to means must. So this means




          Why must love be so sad?







          Note that in both of the suggestions you offered, you have forgotten to do the subject-auxiliary inversion that is required to make a question. Neither sentence has an auxiliary, so you must add one - does.


          Love happens to be so sad. - statement
          Love [does] happen to be so sad. - statement

          Why does love happen to be so sad? - question

          Love has to be so sad. - statement
          Love [does] have to be so sad. - statement

          Why does love have to be so sad? - statement








          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 5 hours ago









          JavaLatte

          37k23884




          37k23884




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Why has love got to be so sad?



              In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).



              to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.




              • I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.

              • I have to go now. She has to be kidding.

              • I must go. She must be kidding.



              The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:



              To have to be something=To have got to be something.



              Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.



              Please note:




              Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.







              share|improve this answer


























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Why has love got to be so sad?



                In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).



                to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.




                • I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.

                • I have to go now. She has to be kidding.

                • I must go. She must be kidding.



                The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:



                To have to be something=To have got to be something.



                Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.



                Please note:




                Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.







                share|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  Why has love got to be so sad?



                  In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).



                  to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.




                  • I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.

                  • I have to go now. She has to be kidding.

                  • I must go. She must be kidding.



                  The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:



                  To have to be something=To have got to be something.



                  Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.



                  Please note:




                  Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.







                  share|improve this answer














                  Why has love got to be so sad?



                  In English, there are two present forms of the verb have when it means to have an obligation or be necessary (to have to do or be something or to have got to do or be something) or possession or ownership (to have or have got something).



                  to have to be something can also be said as: to have got to be something.




                  • I have got to go now. She has got to be kidding.

                  • I have to go now. She has to be kidding.

                  • I must go. She must be kidding.



                  The three sentences above all mean the same thing. What is confusing to ELLers is that the verb have has two forms in the present tense:



                  To have to be something=To have got to be something.



                  Why has love got to be so sad? [Third person singular, has got]. This line could have been written in any of the other two ways given above as well.



                  Please note:




                  Please note: have got is used in speech, not in writing. Also, I gave have/has got to be kidding because in English there is often another verb after have/has got/must.








                  share|improve this answer














                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer








                  edited 1 hour ago

























                  answered 4 hours ago









                  Lambie

                  12.5k1331




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