A bounded sequence in metric space that has no convergent sequence

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Let consider first the space $$V=x_i.$$



This is a complete metric space (refer to my course). Now I was wondering if the set $$mathcal A=xin ell^infty mid ,$$
is compact. I know that in a metric space, a set is compact $iff$ its sequentially compact (i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence). I consider the sequence $$x_n=x^i_n,$$
where $x_n^i=(0,0...,0,1,0,...)$ where the $1$ is at the $i^th$ position. In other words, $$x_1=(1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_2=(0,1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_3=(0,0,1,0,...)$$



We have that $$|x_n^i|_ell^infty =1$$
for all $n$ and thus $(x_n)_n$ is a bounded sequence. What could be a convergent subsequence ? I guess that there is no convergent subsequence. To me, if a subsequence converge, it must converge to $0$ (I really don't know how to prove this), but in the same time the norm of the limit must be 1 I guess. So it can't have convergent subsequence. Am I right ? So $mathcal A$ is not compact ?










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  • What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 11 at 9:06










  • @MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:07















up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1












Let consider first the space $$V=x_i.$$



This is a complete metric space (refer to my course). Now I was wondering if the set $$mathcal A=xin ell^infty mid ,$$
is compact. I know that in a metric space, a set is compact $iff$ its sequentially compact (i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence). I consider the sequence $$x_n=x^i_n,$$
where $x_n^i=(0,0...,0,1,0,...)$ where the $1$ is at the $i^th$ position. In other words, $$x_1=(1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_2=(0,1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_3=(0,0,1,0,...)$$



We have that $$|x_n^i|_ell^infty =1$$
for all $n$ and thus $(x_n)_n$ is a bounded sequence. What could be a convergent subsequence ? I guess that there is no convergent subsequence. To me, if a subsequence converge, it must converge to $0$ (I really don't know how to prove this), but in the same time the norm of the limit must be 1 I guess. So it can't have convergent subsequence. Am I right ? So $mathcal A$ is not compact ?










share|cite|improve this question























  • What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 11 at 9:06










  • @MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:07













up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let consider first the space $$V=x_i.$$



This is a complete metric space (refer to my course). Now I was wondering if the set $$mathcal A=xin ell^infty mid ,$$
is compact. I know that in a metric space, a set is compact $iff$ its sequentially compact (i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence). I consider the sequence $$x_n=x^i_n,$$
where $x_n^i=(0,0...,0,1,0,...)$ where the $1$ is at the $i^th$ position. In other words, $$x_1=(1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_2=(0,1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_3=(0,0,1,0,...)$$



We have that $$|x_n^i|_ell^infty =1$$
for all $n$ and thus $(x_n)_n$ is a bounded sequence. What could be a convergent subsequence ? I guess that there is no convergent subsequence. To me, if a subsequence converge, it must converge to $0$ (I really don't know how to prove this), but in the same time the norm of the limit must be 1 I guess. So it can't have convergent subsequence. Am I right ? So $mathcal A$ is not compact ?










share|cite|improve this question















Let consider first the space $$V=x_i.$$



This is a complete metric space (refer to my course). Now I was wondering if the set $$mathcal A=xin ell^infty mid ,$$
is compact. I know that in a metric space, a set is compact $iff$ its sequentially compact (i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence). I consider the sequence $$x_n=x^i_n,$$
where $x_n^i=(0,0...,0,1,0,...)$ where the $1$ is at the $i^th$ position. In other words, $$x_1=(1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_2=(0,1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_3=(0,0,1,0,...)$$



We have that $$|x_n^i|_ell^infty =1$$
for all $n$ and thus $(x_n)_n$ is a bounded sequence. What could be a convergent subsequence ? I guess that there is no convergent subsequence. To me, if a subsequence converge, it must converge to $0$ (I really don't know how to prove this), but in the same time the norm of the limit must be 1 I guess. So it can't have convergent subsequence. Am I right ? So $mathcal A$ is not compact ?







functional-analysis






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edited Aug 11 at 9:06









mathcounterexamples.net

25.7k21754




25.7k21754










asked Aug 11 at 9:01









user380364

966214




966214











  • What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 11 at 9:06










  • @MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:07

















  • What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 11 at 9:06










  • @MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:07
















What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
– Mostafa Ayaz
Aug 11 at 9:06




What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
– Mostafa Ayaz
Aug 11 at 9:06












@MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
– user380364
Aug 11 at 9:07





@MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
– user380364
Aug 11 at 9:07











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote













According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:09






  • 1




    Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Aug 11 at 9:13

















up vote
2
down vote













Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:17







  • 1




    Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
    – Rigel
    Aug 11 at 9:20










  • indeed, it looks better :)
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:22

















up vote
0
down vote













Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.



There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).






share|cite|improve this answer




















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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    4
    down vote













    According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:09






    • 1




      Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
      – mathcounterexamples.net
      Aug 11 at 9:13














    up vote
    4
    down vote













    According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:09






    • 1




      Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
      – mathcounterexamples.net
      Aug 11 at 9:13












    up vote
    4
    down vote










    up vote
    4
    down vote









    According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Aug 11 at 9:09

























    answered Aug 11 at 9:07









    mathcounterexamples.net

    25.7k21754




    25.7k21754











    • Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:09






    • 1




      Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
      – mathcounterexamples.net
      Aug 11 at 9:13
















    • Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:09






    • 1




      Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
      – mathcounterexamples.net
      Aug 11 at 9:13















    Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:09




    Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:09




    1




    1




    Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Aug 11 at 9:13




    Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Aug 11 at 9:13










    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:17







    • 1




      Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
      – Rigel
      Aug 11 at 9:20










    • indeed, it looks better :)
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:22














    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:17







    • 1




      Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
      – Rigel
      Aug 11 at 9:20










    • indeed, it looks better :)
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:22












    up vote
    2
    down vote










    up vote
    2
    down vote









    Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Aug 11 at 9:09









    Rigel

    10.4k11319




    10.4k11319











    • Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:17







    • 1




      Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
      – Rigel
      Aug 11 at 9:20










    • indeed, it looks better :)
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:22
















    • Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:17







    • 1




      Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
      – Rigel
      Aug 11 at 9:20










    • indeed, it looks better :)
      – user380364
      Aug 11 at 9:22















    Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:17





    Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:17





    1




    1




    Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
    – Rigel
    Aug 11 at 9:20




    Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
    – Rigel
    Aug 11 at 9:20












    indeed, it looks better :)
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:22




    indeed, it looks better :)
    – user380364
    Aug 11 at 9:22










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.



    There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.



      There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.



        There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.



        There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Aug 11 at 16:35









        Eric Towers

        30.6k22264




        30.6k22264



























             

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