A bounded sequence in metric space that has no convergent sequence
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Let consider first the space $$V=x_i.$$
This is a complete metric space (refer to my course). Now I was wondering if the set $$mathcal A=xin ell^infty mid ,$$
is compact. I know that in a metric space, a set is compact $iff$ its sequentially compact (i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence). I consider the sequence $$x_n=x^i_n,$$
where $x_n^i=(0,0...,0,1,0,...)$ where the $1$ is at the $i^th$ position. In other words, $$x_1=(1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_2=(0,1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_3=(0,0,1,0,...)$$
We have that $$|x_n^i|_ell^infty =1$$
for all $n$ and thus $(x_n)_n$ is a bounded sequence. What could be a convergent subsequence ? I guess that there is no convergent subsequence. To me, if a subsequence converge, it must converge to $0$ (I really don't know how to prove this), but in the same time the norm of the limit must be 1 I guess. So it can't have convergent subsequence. Am I right ? So $mathcal A$ is not compact ?
functional-analysis
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
Let consider first the space $$V=x_i.$$
This is a complete metric space (refer to my course). Now I was wondering if the set $$mathcal A=xin ell^infty mid ,$$
is compact. I know that in a metric space, a set is compact $iff$ its sequentially compact (i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence). I consider the sequence $$x_n=x^i_n,$$
where $x_n^i=(0,0...,0,1,0,...)$ where the $1$ is at the $i^th$ position. In other words, $$x_1=(1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_2=(0,1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_3=(0,0,1,0,...)$$
We have that $$|x_n^i|_ell^infty =1$$
for all $n$ and thus $(x_n)_n$ is a bounded sequence. What could be a convergent subsequence ? I guess that there is no convergent subsequence. To me, if a subsequence converge, it must converge to $0$ (I really don't know how to prove this), but in the same time the norm of the limit must be 1 I guess. So it can't have convergent subsequence. Am I right ? So $mathcal A$ is not compact ?
functional-analysis
What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
â Mostafa Ayaz
Aug 11 at 9:06
@MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:07
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
Let consider first the space $$V=x_i.$$
This is a complete metric space (refer to my course). Now I was wondering if the set $$mathcal A=xin ell^infty mid ,$$
is compact. I know that in a metric space, a set is compact $iff$ its sequentially compact (i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence). I consider the sequence $$x_n=x^i_n,$$
where $x_n^i=(0,0...,0,1,0,...)$ where the $1$ is at the $i^th$ position. In other words, $$x_1=(1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_2=(0,1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_3=(0,0,1,0,...)$$
We have that $$|x_n^i|_ell^infty =1$$
for all $n$ and thus $(x_n)_n$ is a bounded sequence. What could be a convergent subsequence ? I guess that there is no convergent subsequence. To me, if a subsequence converge, it must converge to $0$ (I really don't know how to prove this), but in the same time the norm of the limit must be 1 I guess. So it can't have convergent subsequence. Am I right ? So $mathcal A$ is not compact ?
functional-analysis
Let consider first the space $$V=x_i.$$
This is a complete metric space (refer to my course). Now I was wondering if the set $$mathcal A=xin ell^infty mid ,$$
is compact. I know that in a metric space, a set is compact $iff$ its sequentially compact (i.e. every sequence has a convergent subsequence). I consider the sequence $$x_n=x^i_n,$$
where $x_n^i=(0,0...,0,1,0,...)$ where the $1$ is at the $i^th$ position. In other words, $$x_1=(1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_2=(0,1,0,0,...)$$
$$x_3=(0,0,1,0,...)$$
We have that $$|x_n^i|_ell^infty =1$$
for all $n$ and thus $(x_n)_n$ is a bounded sequence. What could be a convergent subsequence ? I guess that there is no convergent subsequence. To me, if a subsequence converge, it must converge to $0$ (I really don't know how to prove this), but in the same time the norm of the limit must be 1 I guess. So it can't have convergent subsequence. Am I right ? So $mathcal A$ is not compact ?
functional-analysis
functional-analysis
edited Aug 11 at 9:06
mathcounterexamples.net
25.7k21754
25.7k21754
asked Aug 11 at 9:01
user380364
966214
966214
What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
â Mostafa Ayaz
Aug 11 at 9:06
@MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:07
add a comment |Â
What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
â Mostafa Ayaz
Aug 11 at 9:06
@MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:07
What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
â Mostafa Ayaz
Aug 11 at 9:06
What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
â Mostafa Ayaz
Aug 11 at 9:06
@MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:07
@MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:07
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.
Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:09
1
Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
â mathcounterexamples.net
Aug 11 at 9:13
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.
Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:17
1
Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
â Rigel
Aug 11 at 9:20
indeed, it looks better :)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:22
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.
There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.
Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:09
1
Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
â mathcounterexamples.net
Aug 11 at 9:13
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.
Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:09
1
Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
â mathcounterexamples.net
Aug 11 at 9:13
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.
According to Riesz's lemma a normed vector space is of finite dimension if an only if its closed unit ball is compact. As your space $V$ is of infinite dimension, $mathcal A$ can't be compact.
edited Aug 11 at 9:09
answered Aug 11 at 9:07
mathcounterexamples.net
25.7k21754
25.7k21754
Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:09
1
Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
â mathcounterexamples.net
Aug 11 at 9:13
add a comment |Â
Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:09
1
Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
â mathcounterexamples.net
Aug 11 at 9:13
Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:09
Thank you. Is my counter-example a good one ? If yes, how do you show that it has no convergent subsequence ?
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:09
1
1
Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
â mathcounterexamples.net
Aug 11 at 9:13
Yes. For $m>n$ you have $x_m^n = 0$ hence the sequence can only converge to the always vanishing sequence. In contradiction that $Vert x_n Vert_infty = 1$ for all $n in mathbb N$.
â mathcounterexamples.net
Aug 11 at 9:13
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.
Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:17
1
Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
â Rigel
Aug 11 at 9:20
indeed, it looks better :)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:22
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.
Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:17
1
Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
â Rigel
Aug 11 at 9:20
indeed, it looks better :)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:22
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.
Hint: if the sequence $(x^i)subset ell^infty$ converges to $x$ in $ell^infty$, then it converges component-wise, i.e. $lim_ito +infty x^i_n = x_n$ for every $n$.
answered Aug 11 at 9:09
Rigel
10.4k11319
10.4k11319
Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:17
1
Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
â Rigel
Aug 11 at 9:20
indeed, it looks better :)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:22
add a comment |Â
Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:17
1
Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
â Rigel
Aug 11 at 9:20
indeed, it looks better :)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:22
Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:17
Something doesn't look correct in what you wrote. I have $x_n=x_n^i$, What would be $lim_ito infty x_n^i$ if the sequence doesn't depend on $i$ ? The $i$ is just a notation to say $1$ at the $i^th$ component. So $x_n^i$ means the $i^th$ component.
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:17
1
1
Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
â Rigel
Aug 11 at 9:20
Your notation is not completely consistent. Anyway, in my notation $x^i in ell^infty$ denotes $x^i = (x^i_1, x^i_2, ldots, x^i_n, ldots) = (0, 0, ldots, 0, 1, 0, ldots)$ with the $1$ in $i$-th position.
â Rigel
Aug 11 at 9:20
indeed, it looks better :)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:22
indeed, it looks better :)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:22
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.
There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.
There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.
There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).
Note that for $i neq j$, $||x_i - x_j||_infty = max, = 1$, so your sequence cannot have a Cauchy subsequence.
There is a fairly common observation here. $[-1,1]^omega = mathcalA$ and the set of that "cube"'s corners, $-1,1^omega$, is a countable set of points with pairwise distance bounded below. With the open cover definition of compact, the collection of open balls of radius $2$ centered on the set of corners is an open cover with no finite subcover (since each center is contained in only one ball in the collection and there are infinitely many corners).
answered Aug 11 at 16:35
Eric Towers
30.6k22264
30.6k22264
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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What is your metric ($d(x,y)$)?
â Mostafa Ayaz
Aug 11 at 9:06
@MostafaAyaz: We are in a normed space, so the one induce by the norm... but we don't need metric a priori (since we have a norm)
â user380364
Aug 11 at 9:07