Inductively defined sequence of graph neighborhoods
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
$begingroup$
I'm trying to solve the following problem:
Let $v_0$ be a vertex in a graph $G$, and $D_0 := v_0$.
For $n = 1, 2 dots$ inductively define
$D_n := N(D_0 cup D_1 cup dots cup D_n-1)$.
Show that $D_n = v $ and
$D_n+1 subseteq N(D_n) subseteq D_n-1 cup D_n+1$ for all
$n in mathbbN$.
Here, $N_G(V') = N(V')$ is the neighborhood of $V' subseteq V(G)$, and
$d_G(u, v) = d(u, v)$ is the distance in $G$ of two vertices $u$, $v$.
I'm unable to solve the task because I am not sure if it's correctly defined. Every type of graph seems to be a contradiction to the statements above. Consider for simplicity the following example:
Let $P$ be a path, and $v_0$ be the central vertex in $P$. Then
$D_0 = v_0$,
$D_1 = N(D_0) = d(v_0, v) = 1$,
$D_2 = N(D_0 cup D_1) = N(v_0 cup N(v_0)) =
v $,
and for all $n geq 2$ we obtain $D_n = d(v_0, v) leq n$. In particular, it follows that $V(P) = D_r$, where $r$ is the radius of $P$.
This example contradicts both statements in the second part of the task. Can you, please, help me find out, is there anything I am missing or interpreting incorrectly?
graph-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm trying to solve the following problem:
Let $v_0$ be a vertex in a graph $G$, and $D_0 := v_0$.
For $n = 1, 2 dots$ inductively define
$D_n := N(D_0 cup D_1 cup dots cup D_n-1)$.
Show that $D_n = v $ and
$D_n+1 subseteq N(D_n) subseteq D_n-1 cup D_n+1$ for all
$n in mathbbN$.
Here, $N_G(V') = N(V')$ is the neighborhood of $V' subseteq V(G)$, and
$d_G(u, v) = d(u, v)$ is the distance in $G$ of two vertices $u$, $v$.
I'm unable to solve the task because I am not sure if it's correctly defined. Every type of graph seems to be a contradiction to the statements above. Consider for simplicity the following example:
Let $P$ be a path, and $v_0$ be the central vertex in $P$. Then
$D_0 = v_0$,
$D_1 = N(D_0) = d(v_0, v) = 1$,
$D_2 = N(D_0 cup D_1) = N(v_0 cup N(v_0)) =
v $,
and for all $n geq 2$ we obtain $D_n = d(v_0, v) leq n$. In particular, it follows that $V(P) = D_r$, where $r$ is the radius of $P$.
This example contradicts both statements in the second part of the task. Can you, please, help me find out, is there anything I am missing or interpreting incorrectly?
graph-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm trying to solve the following problem:
Let $v_0$ be a vertex in a graph $G$, and $D_0 := v_0$.
For $n = 1, 2 dots$ inductively define
$D_n := N(D_0 cup D_1 cup dots cup D_n-1)$.
Show that $D_n = v $ and
$D_n+1 subseteq N(D_n) subseteq D_n-1 cup D_n+1$ for all
$n in mathbbN$.
Here, $N_G(V') = N(V')$ is the neighborhood of $V' subseteq V(G)$, and
$d_G(u, v) = d(u, v)$ is the distance in $G$ of two vertices $u$, $v$.
I'm unable to solve the task because I am not sure if it's correctly defined. Every type of graph seems to be a contradiction to the statements above. Consider for simplicity the following example:
Let $P$ be a path, and $v_0$ be the central vertex in $P$. Then
$D_0 = v_0$,
$D_1 = N(D_0) = d(v_0, v) = 1$,
$D_2 = N(D_0 cup D_1) = N(v_0 cup N(v_0)) =
v $,
and for all $n geq 2$ we obtain $D_n = d(v_0, v) leq n$. In particular, it follows that $V(P) = D_r$, where $r$ is the radius of $P$.
This example contradicts both statements in the second part of the task. Can you, please, help me find out, is there anything I am missing or interpreting incorrectly?
graph-theory
$endgroup$
I'm trying to solve the following problem:
Let $v_0$ be a vertex in a graph $G$, and $D_0 := v_0$.
For $n = 1, 2 dots$ inductively define
$D_n := N(D_0 cup D_1 cup dots cup D_n-1)$.
Show that $D_n = v $ and
$D_n+1 subseteq N(D_n) subseteq D_n-1 cup D_n+1$ for all
$n in mathbbN$.
Here, $N_G(V') = N(V')$ is the neighborhood of $V' subseteq V(G)$, and
$d_G(u, v) = d(u, v)$ is the distance in $G$ of two vertices $u$, $v$.
I'm unable to solve the task because I am not sure if it's correctly defined. Every type of graph seems to be a contradiction to the statements above. Consider for simplicity the following example:
Let $P$ be a path, and $v_0$ be the central vertex in $P$. Then
$D_0 = v_0$,
$D_1 = N(D_0) = d(v_0, v) = 1$,
$D_2 = N(D_0 cup D_1) = N(v_0 cup N(v_0)) =
v $,
and for all $n geq 2$ we obtain $D_n = d(v_0, v) leq n$. In particular, it follows that $V(P) = D_r$, where $r$ is the radius of $P$.
This example contradicts both statements in the second part of the task. Can you, please, help me find out, is there anything I am missing or interpreting incorrectly?
graph-theory
graph-theory
asked Feb 6 at 8:16
Sanjar AdylovSanjar Adylov
284
284
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2 Answers
2
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oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood
The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:
$D_0=v_0$
$D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$
$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
and so on.
More precisely if you define $P$ as:
$$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
$$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$
Therefore the statements holds as
beginalign*
D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
&subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
endalign*
with an equality in your specific case of $P$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
$endgroup$
– Especially Lime
Feb 6 at 9:17
$begingroup$
Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Feb 6 at 21:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.
So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
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active
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votes
$begingroup$
You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood
The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:
$D_0=v_0$
$D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$
$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
and so on.
More precisely if you define $P$ as:
$$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
$$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$
Therefore the statements holds as
beginalign*
D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
&subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
endalign*
with an equality in your specific case of $P$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
$endgroup$
– Especially Lime
Feb 6 at 9:17
$begingroup$
Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Feb 6 at 21:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood
The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:
$D_0=v_0$
$D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$
$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
and so on.
More precisely if you define $P$ as:
$$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
$$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$
Therefore the statements holds as
beginalign*
D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
&subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
endalign*
with an equality in your specific case of $P$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
$endgroup$
– Especially Lime
Feb 6 at 9:17
$begingroup$
Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Feb 6 at 21:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood
The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:
$D_0=v_0$
$D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$
$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
and so on.
More precisely if you define $P$ as:
$$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
$$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$
Therefore the statements holds as
beginalign*
D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
&subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
endalign*
with an equality in your specific case of $P$
$endgroup$
You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood
The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:
$D_0=v_0$
$D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$
$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
and so on.
More precisely if you define $P$ as:
$$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
$$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$
Therefore the statements holds as
beginalign*
D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
&subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
endalign*
with an equality in your specific case of $P$
answered Feb 6 at 9:16
Thomas LesgourguesThomas Lesgourgues
937117
937117
1
$begingroup$
Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
$endgroup$
– Especially Lime
Feb 6 at 9:17
$begingroup$
Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Feb 6 at 21:10
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
$endgroup$
– Especially Lime
Feb 6 at 9:17
$begingroup$
Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Feb 6 at 21:10
1
1
$begingroup$
Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
$endgroup$
– Especially Lime
Feb 6 at 9:17
$begingroup$
Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
$endgroup$
– Especially Lime
Feb 6 at 9:17
$begingroup$
Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Feb 6 at 21:10
$begingroup$
Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
$endgroup$
– Mike
Feb 6 at 21:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.
So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.
So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.
So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.
$endgroup$
It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.
So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.
answered Feb 6 at 9:15
broncoAbiertobroncoAbierto
27819
27819
add a comment |
add a comment |
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