Inductively defined sequence of graph neighborhoods

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5












$begingroup$


I'm trying to solve the following problem:




Let $v_0$ be a vertex in a graph $G$, and $D_0 := v_0$.



  1. For $n = 1, 2 dots$ inductively define
    $D_n := N(D_0 cup D_1 cup dots cup D_n-1)$.


  2. Show that $D_n = v $ and
    $D_n+1 subseteq N(D_n) subseteq D_n-1 cup D_n+1$ for all
    $n in mathbbN$.




Here, $N_G(V') = N(V')$ is the neighborhood of $V' subseteq V(G)$, and
$d_G(u, v) = d(u, v)$ is the distance in $G$ of two vertices $u$, $v$.



I'm unable to solve the task because I am not sure if it's correctly defined. Every type of graph seems to be a contradiction to the statements above. Consider for simplicity the following example:



Let $P$ be a path, and $v_0$ be the central vertex in $P$. Then



$D_0 = v_0$,



$D_1 = N(D_0) = d(v_0, v) = 1$,



$D_2 = N(D_0 cup D_1) = N(v_0 cup N(v_0)) =
v $
,



and for all $n geq 2$ we obtain $D_n = d(v_0, v) leq n$. In particular, it follows that $V(P) = D_r$, where $r$ is the radius of $P$.



This example contradicts both statements in the second part of the task. Can you, please, help me find out, is there anything I am missing or interpreting incorrectly?










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$endgroup$
















    5












    $begingroup$


    I'm trying to solve the following problem:




    Let $v_0$ be a vertex in a graph $G$, and $D_0 := v_0$.



    1. For $n = 1, 2 dots$ inductively define
      $D_n := N(D_0 cup D_1 cup dots cup D_n-1)$.


    2. Show that $D_n = v $ and
      $D_n+1 subseteq N(D_n) subseteq D_n-1 cup D_n+1$ for all
      $n in mathbbN$.




    Here, $N_G(V') = N(V')$ is the neighborhood of $V' subseteq V(G)$, and
    $d_G(u, v) = d(u, v)$ is the distance in $G$ of two vertices $u$, $v$.



    I'm unable to solve the task because I am not sure if it's correctly defined. Every type of graph seems to be a contradiction to the statements above. Consider for simplicity the following example:



    Let $P$ be a path, and $v_0$ be the central vertex in $P$. Then



    $D_0 = v_0$,



    $D_1 = N(D_0) = d(v_0, v) = 1$,



    $D_2 = N(D_0 cup D_1) = N(v_0 cup N(v_0)) =
    v $
    ,



    and for all $n geq 2$ we obtain $D_n = d(v_0, v) leq n$. In particular, it follows that $V(P) = D_r$, where $r$ is the radius of $P$.



    This example contradicts both statements in the second part of the task. Can you, please, help me find out, is there anything I am missing or interpreting incorrectly?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      5












      5








      5





      $begingroup$


      I'm trying to solve the following problem:




      Let $v_0$ be a vertex in a graph $G$, and $D_0 := v_0$.



      1. For $n = 1, 2 dots$ inductively define
        $D_n := N(D_0 cup D_1 cup dots cup D_n-1)$.


      2. Show that $D_n = v $ and
        $D_n+1 subseteq N(D_n) subseteq D_n-1 cup D_n+1$ for all
        $n in mathbbN$.




      Here, $N_G(V') = N(V')$ is the neighborhood of $V' subseteq V(G)$, and
      $d_G(u, v) = d(u, v)$ is the distance in $G$ of two vertices $u$, $v$.



      I'm unable to solve the task because I am not sure if it's correctly defined. Every type of graph seems to be a contradiction to the statements above. Consider for simplicity the following example:



      Let $P$ be a path, and $v_0$ be the central vertex in $P$. Then



      $D_0 = v_0$,



      $D_1 = N(D_0) = d(v_0, v) = 1$,



      $D_2 = N(D_0 cup D_1) = N(v_0 cup N(v_0)) =
      v $
      ,



      and for all $n geq 2$ we obtain $D_n = d(v_0, v) leq n$. In particular, it follows that $V(P) = D_r$, where $r$ is the radius of $P$.



      This example contradicts both statements in the second part of the task. Can you, please, help me find out, is there anything I am missing or interpreting incorrectly?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm trying to solve the following problem:




      Let $v_0$ be a vertex in a graph $G$, and $D_0 := v_0$.



      1. For $n = 1, 2 dots$ inductively define
        $D_n := N(D_0 cup D_1 cup dots cup D_n-1)$.


      2. Show that $D_n = v $ and
        $D_n+1 subseteq N(D_n) subseteq D_n-1 cup D_n+1$ for all
        $n in mathbbN$.




      Here, $N_G(V') = N(V')$ is the neighborhood of $V' subseteq V(G)$, and
      $d_G(u, v) = d(u, v)$ is the distance in $G$ of two vertices $u$, $v$.



      I'm unable to solve the task because I am not sure if it's correctly defined. Every type of graph seems to be a contradiction to the statements above. Consider for simplicity the following example:



      Let $P$ be a path, and $v_0$ be the central vertex in $P$. Then



      $D_0 = v_0$,



      $D_1 = N(D_0) = d(v_0, v) = 1$,



      $D_2 = N(D_0 cup D_1) = N(v_0 cup N(v_0)) =
      v $
      ,



      and for all $n geq 2$ we obtain $D_n = d(v_0, v) leq n$. In particular, it follows that $V(P) = D_r$, where $r$ is the radius of $P$.



      This example contradicts both statements in the second part of the task. Can you, please, help me find out, is there anything I am missing or interpreting incorrectly?







      graph-theory






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      asked Feb 6 at 8:16









      Sanjar AdylovSanjar Adylov

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          2 Answers
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          4












          $begingroup$

          You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood



          The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:



          $D_0=v_0$



          $D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$



          $D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
          and so on.



          More precisely if you define $P$ as:
          $$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
          Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
          $$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$



          Therefore the statements holds as
          beginalign*
          D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
          &subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
          endalign*

          with an equality in your specific case of $P$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
            $endgroup$
            – Especially Lime
            Feb 6 at 9:17










          • $begingroup$
            Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
            $endgroup$
            – Mike
            Feb 6 at 21:10



















          2












          $begingroup$

          It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.



          So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            4












            $begingroup$

            You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood



            The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:



            $D_0=v_0$



            $D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$



            $D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
            and so on.



            More precisely if you define $P$ as:
            $$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
            Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
            $$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$



            Therefore the statements holds as
            beginalign*
            D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
            &subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
            endalign*

            with an equality in your specific case of $P$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
              $endgroup$
              – Especially Lime
              Feb 6 at 9:17










            • $begingroup$
              Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
              $endgroup$
              – Mike
              Feb 6 at 21:10
















            4












            $begingroup$

            You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood



            The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:



            $D_0=v_0$



            $D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$



            $D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
            and so on.



            More precisely if you define $P$ as:
            $$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
            Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
            $$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$



            Therefore the statements holds as
            beginalign*
            D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
            &subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
            endalign*

            with an equality in your specific case of $P$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
              $endgroup$
              – Especially Lime
              Feb 6 at 9:17










            • $begingroup$
              Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
              $endgroup$
              – Mike
              Feb 6 at 21:10














            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood



            The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:



            $D_0=v_0$



            $D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$



            $D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
            and so on.



            More precisely if you define $P$ as:
            $$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
            Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
            $$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$



            Therefore the statements holds as
            beginalign*
            D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
            &subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
            endalign*

            with an equality in your specific case of $P$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            You are mixing closed and open neighbourhood. I think when they are stating $D_n=N(D_0cupldotscup D_n-1)$, they are implying the open neighbourhood



            The open neighbourhood $N(S)$ of some set of vertices $S$ does not include $S$. Therefore, using your exampla of the path $P$:



            $D_0=v_0$



            $D_1=N(D_0)=v mid d(v_0,v)=1$



            $D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)=v mid d(v_0,v)=2$
            and so on.



            More precisely if you define $P$ as:
            $$ ldots v_-n ldots v_-2 v_1 v_0 v_1 v_2 ldots v_n ldots$$
            Then $D_0=v_0$, $D_1=N(D_0)=v_1,v_-1$, and
            $$D_2=N(D_0cup D_1)= N(v_1,v_0,v_-1)=v_2,v_-2$$



            Therefore the statements holds as
            beginalign*
            D_n+1=v_n+1,v_-(n+1) &subset N(D_n)=N(v_n,v_-n)=v_n+1,v_n-1,v_-(n-1),v_-(n+1)\
            &subset D_n-1 cup D_n+1
            endalign*

            with an equality in your specific case of $P$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Feb 6 at 9:16









            Thomas LesgourguesThomas Lesgourgues

            937117




            937117







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
              $endgroup$
              – Especially Lime
              Feb 6 at 9:17










            • $begingroup$
              Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
              $endgroup$
              – Mike
              Feb 6 at 21:10













            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
              $endgroup$
              – Especially Lime
              Feb 6 at 9:17










            • $begingroup$
              Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
              $endgroup$
              – Mike
              Feb 6 at 21:10








            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
            $endgroup$
            – Especially Lime
            Feb 6 at 9:17




            $begingroup$
            Yes, this. I've seen people use the notation $N(X)$ for open neighbourhood and $N[X]$ for closed neighbourhood.
            $endgroup$
            – Especially Lime
            Feb 6 at 9:17












            $begingroup$
            Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
            $endgroup$
            – Mike
            Feb 6 at 21:10





            $begingroup$
            Indeed $N(X)$ can mean a few different things, after all this time I am not really sure which is the standard. $N(X)$ could be $S_1 doteq v: vx in E$ for some $x in X$... $N(X)$ could mean $S_1 cup X$ or it could mean $S_1 setminus X$.
            $endgroup$
            – Mike
            Feb 6 at 21:10












            2












            $begingroup$

            It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.



            So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              2












              $begingroup$

              It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.



              So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.



                So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                It depends on how you define the neighbourhood, but it seems that here it is defined so that $N(V')$ comprises the vertices adjacent to some vertex in $V'$, excluding vertices in $V'$.



                So in that case, $N(D_0cup D_1)neq d(v_0,v)leq 2$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Feb 6 at 9:15









                broncoAbiertobroncoAbierto

                27819




                27819



























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