Where is the mistake in this “proof” of the inconsistency of ZFC?

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This is a "proof" that ZFC is inconsistent, but I haven't found the mistake yet.




Let $varphi_n colon n <omega$ be an enumeration of all formulas in $L_in$ with exactly one free variable. Consider the formula
$$psi(x) equiv x in omega land lnot varphi_x(x) , .$$
Since $psi$ is a formula with one free variable, then $psi$ is $varphi_k$ for some $k$. But then,
$$mathrmZFC vdash varphi_k(k) leftrightarrow psi(k) leftrightarrow lnot varphi_k(k)$$




I have been giving this a lot of time, but I still cannot figure out the error on the fake proof here. Can anyone give me a clue?










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  • 1




    $psi$ is not a single formula. The term $neg phi_x(x)$ is effectively a different formula for every $x$. I suspect this has something to do with it - in particular I think some form of diagonalization-like reasoning will show that $psi(x)$ is not such a $phi_k$.
    – The_Sympathizer
    3 hours ago










  • What is your definition of 'formula'? Since you're talking about a formal logical result, a naive definition that a formula is just a string of symbols isn't sufficient here...
    – Steven Stadnicki
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    There's a language/metalanguage mixup going on here. The you're using a variable of your metalanguage (the $x$ that ranges over natural numbers) as a variable of your object language, which is just plain mischief.
    – Malice Vidrine
    2 hours ago










  • Suppose $varphi$ was a lexicographical enumeration of unary formulas. What would $psi$ look like? How many symbols long would it be?
    – DanielV
    2 hours ago







  • 1




    This is pretty close to Richard's paradox -- in fact arguably it is Richard's paradox, given the usual set-theoretic convention that identifies "real number" with "subset of $omega$" -- at least as long as you're not giving a specific argument for how "$varphi_x(y)$" is supposed to be a concrete formula in the language of set theory with free variables $x$ and $y$.
    – Henning Makholm
    2 hours ago















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












This is a "proof" that ZFC is inconsistent, but I haven't found the mistake yet.




Let $varphi_n colon n <omega$ be an enumeration of all formulas in $L_in$ with exactly one free variable. Consider the formula
$$psi(x) equiv x in omega land lnot varphi_x(x) , .$$
Since $psi$ is a formula with one free variable, then $psi$ is $varphi_k$ for some $k$. But then,
$$mathrmZFC vdash varphi_k(k) leftrightarrow psi(k) leftrightarrow lnot varphi_k(k)$$




I have been giving this a lot of time, but I still cannot figure out the error on the fake proof here. Can anyone give me a clue?










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    $psi$ is not a single formula. The term $neg phi_x(x)$ is effectively a different formula for every $x$. I suspect this has something to do with it - in particular I think some form of diagonalization-like reasoning will show that $psi(x)$ is not such a $phi_k$.
    – The_Sympathizer
    3 hours ago










  • What is your definition of 'formula'? Since you're talking about a formal logical result, a naive definition that a formula is just a string of symbols isn't sufficient here...
    – Steven Stadnicki
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    There's a language/metalanguage mixup going on here. The you're using a variable of your metalanguage (the $x$ that ranges over natural numbers) as a variable of your object language, which is just plain mischief.
    – Malice Vidrine
    2 hours ago










  • Suppose $varphi$ was a lexicographical enumeration of unary formulas. What would $psi$ look like? How many symbols long would it be?
    – DanielV
    2 hours ago







  • 1




    This is pretty close to Richard's paradox -- in fact arguably it is Richard's paradox, given the usual set-theoretic convention that identifies "real number" with "subset of $omega$" -- at least as long as you're not giving a specific argument for how "$varphi_x(y)$" is supposed to be a concrete formula in the language of set theory with free variables $x$ and $y$.
    – Henning Makholm
    2 hours ago













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











This is a "proof" that ZFC is inconsistent, but I haven't found the mistake yet.




Let $varphi_n colon n <omega$ be an enumeration of all formulas in $L_in$ with exactly one free variable. Consider the formula
$$psi(x) equiv x in omega land lnot varphi_x(x) , .$$
Since $psi$ is a formula with one free variable, then $psi$ is $varphi_k$ for some $k$. But then,
$$mathrmZFC vdash varphi_k(k) leftrightarrow psi(k) leftrightarrow lnot varphi_k(k)$$




I have been giving this a lot of time, but I still cannot figure out the error on the fake proof here. Can anyone give me a clue?










share|cite|improve this question















This is a "proof" that ZFC is inconsistent, but I haven't found the mistake yet.




Let $varphi_n colon n <omega$ be an enumeration of all formulas in $L_in$ with exactly one free variable. Consider the formula
$$psi(x) equiv x in omega land lnot varphi_x(x) , .$$
Since $psi$ is a formula with one free variable, then $psi$ is $varphi_k$ for some $k$. But then,
$$mathrmZFC vdash varphi_k(k) leftrightarrow psi(k) leftrightarrow lnot varphi_k(k)$$




I have been giving this a lot of time, but I still cannot figure out the error on the fake proof here. Can anyone give me a clue?







logic set-theory fake-proofs






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edited 30 mins ago









Derek Elkins

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asked 3 hours ago









user313212

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  • 1




    $psi$ is not a single formula. The term $neg phi_x(x)$ is effectively a different formula for every $x$. I suspect this has something to do with it - in particular I think some form of diagonalization-like reasoning will show that $psi(x)$ is not such a $phi_k$.
    – The_Sympathizer
    3 hours ago










  • What is your definition of 'formula'? Since you're talking about a formal logical result, a naive definition that a formula is just a string of symbols isn't sufficient here...
    – Steven Stadnicki
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    There's a language/metalanguage mixup going on here. The you're using a variable of your metalanguage (the $x$ that ranges over natural numbers) as a variable of your object language, which is just plain mischief.
    – Malice Vidrine
    2 hours ago










  • Suppose $varphi$ was a lexicographical enumeration of unary formulas. What would $psi$ look like? How many symbols long would it be?
    – DanielV
    2 hours ago







  • 1




    This is pretty close to Richard's paradox -- in fact arguably it is Richard's paradox, given the usual set-theoretic convention that identifies "real number" with "subset of $omega$" -- at least as long as you're not giving a specific argument for how "$varphi_x(y)$" is supposed to be a concrete formula in the language of set theory with free variables $x$ and $y$.
    – Henning Makholm
    2 hours ago













  • 1




    $psi$ is not a single formula. The term $neg phi_x(x)$ is effectively a different formula for every $x$. I suspect this has something to do with it - in particular I think some form of diagonalization-like reasoning will show that $psi(x)$ is not such a $phi_k$.
    – The_Sympathizer
    3 hours ago










  • What is your definition of 'formula'? Since you're talking about a formal logical result, a naive definition that a formula is just a string of symbols isn't sufficient here...
    – Steven Stadnicki
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    There's a language/metalanguage mixup going on here. The you're using a variable of your metalanguage (the $x$ that ranges over natural numbers) as a variable of your object language, which is just plain mischief.
    – Malice Vidrine
    2 hours ago










  • Suppose $varphi$ was a lexicographical enumeration of unary formulas. What would $psi$ look like? How many symbols long would it be?
    – DanielV
    2 hours ago







  • 1




    This is pretty close to Richard's paradox -- in fact arguably it is Richard's paradox, given the usual set-theoretic convention that identifies "real number" with "subset of $omega$" -- at least as long as you're not giving a specific argument for how "$varphi_x(y)$" is supposed to be a concrete formula in the language of set theory with free variables $x$ and $y$.
    – Henning Makholm
    2 hours ago








1




1




$psi$ is not a single formula. The term $neg phi_x(x)$ is effectively a different formula for every $x$. I suspect this has something to do with it - in particular I think some form of diagonalization-like reasoning will show that $psi(x)$ is not such a $phi_k$.
– The_Sympathizer
3 hours ago




$psi$ is not a single formula. The term $neg phi_x(x)$ is effectively a different formula for every $x$. I suspect this has something to do with it - in particular I think some form of diagonalization-like reasoning will show that $psi(x)$ is not such a $phi_k$.
– The_Sympathizer
3 hours ago












What is your definition of 'formula'? Since you're talking about a formal logical result, a naive definition that a formula is just a string of symbols isn't sufficient here...
– Steven Stadnicki
3 hours ago




What is your definition of 'formula'? Since you're talking about a formal logical result, a naive definition that a formula is just a string of symbols isn't sufficient here...
– Steven Stadnicki
3 hours ago




1




1




There's a language/metalanguage mixup going on here. The you're using a variable of your metalanguage (the $x$ that ranges over natural numbers) as a variable of your object language, which is just plain mischief.
– Malice Vidrine
2 hours ago




There's a language/metalanguage mixup going on here. The you're using a variable of your metalanguage (the $x$ that ranges over natural numbers) as a variable of your object language, which is just plain mischief.
– Malice Vidrine
2 hours ago












Suppose $varphi$ was a lexicographical enumeration of unary formulas. What would $psi$ look like? How many symbols long would it be?
– DanielV
2 hours ago





Suppose $varphi$ was a lexicographical enumeration of unary formulas. What would $psi$ look like? How many symbols long would it be?
– DanielV
2 hours ago





1




1




This is pretty close to Richard's paradox -- in fact arguably it is Richard's paradox, given the usual set-theoretic convention that identifies "real number" with "subset of $omega$" -- at least as long as you're not giving a specific argument for how "$varphi_x(y)$" is supposed to be a concrete formula in the language of set theory with free variables $x$ and $y$.
– Henning Makholm
2 hours ago





This is pretty close to Richard's paradox -- in fact arguably it is Richard's paradox, given the usual set-theoretic convention that identifies "real number" with "subset of $omega$" -- at least as long as you're not giving a specific argument for how "$varphi_x(y)$" is supposed to be a concrete formula in the language of set theory with free variables $x$ and $y$.
– Henning Makholm
2 hours ago











2 Answers
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The issue is there's no way to write $varphi_n(x)$ uniformly in ZFC via a single formula $phi(n,x)$. If you wanted a way to enumerate the unary formulas of $L_in$ in ZFC then they won't be in the representation you want here, rather they'd be in the form of Godel numbering. Then if ZFC could prove the schema $mathsfProv(lceilvarphi_nrceil)tovarphi_n$ for each $n$ then it would be indeed be inconsistent. This all holds for far weaker than ZFC as well.






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    As others have suggested, the key is to think about how we would actually go about writing down the predicate $psi(x)$ in the language of set theory. The "$n$" in $varphi_n$ is in the metatheory, so on its face, you really can't.



    The best you could hope for is to write something equivalent to this, through formalization of syntax. You can certainly formalize and enumerate the one-variable formulas of $L_in$ in set theory, and formalize the substitution of a set parameter for a variable. Then you want to write something like "$kinomega$ and $varphi_k(k) $ holds."



    It's the "$varphi_k(k)$ holds" part that is problematic. It requires we have a truth predicate that expresses the notion of a sentence holding. So another way of looking at what you've written is as a proof that a truth predicate does not exist. This is Tarski's theorem.






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      The issue is there's no way to write $varphi_n(x)$ uniformly in ZFC via a single formula $phi(n,x)$. If you wanted a way to enumerate the unary formulas of $L_in$ in ZFC then they won't be in the representation you want here, rather they'd be in the form of Godel numbering. Then if ZFC could prove the schema $mathsfProv(lceilvarphi_nrceil)tovarphi_n$ for each $n$ then it would be indeed be inconsistent. This all holds for far weaker than ZFC as well.






      share|cite|improve this answer








      New contributor




      user122495 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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        up vote
        8
        down vote













        The issue is there's no way to write $varphi_n(x)$ uniformly in ZFC via a single formula $phi(n,x)$. If you wanted a way to enumerate the unary formulas of $L_in$ in ZFC then they won't be in the representation you want here, rather they'd be in the form of Godel numbering. Then if ZFC could prove the schema $mathsfProv(lceilvarphi_nrceil)tovarphi_n$ for each $n$ then it would be indeed be inconsistent. This all holds for far weaker than ZFC as well.






        share|cite|improve this answer








        New contributor




        user122495 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.



















          up vote
          8
          down vote










          up vote
          8
          down vote









          The issue is there's no way to write $varphi_n(x)$ uniformly in ZFC via a single formula $phi(n,x)$. If you wanted a way to enumerate the unary formulas of $L_in$ in ZFC then they won't be in the representation you want here, rather they'd be in the form of Godel numbering. Then if ZFC could prove the schema $mathsfProv(lceilvarphi_nrceil)tovarphi_n$ for each $n$ then it would be indeed be inconsistent. This all holds for far weaker than ZFC as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          user122495 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          The issue is there's no way to write $varphi_n(x)$ uniformly in ZFC via a single formula $phi(n,x)$. If you wanted a way to enumerate the unary formulas of $L_in$ in ZFC then they won't be in the representation you want here, rather they'd be in the form of Godel numbering. Then if ZFC could prove the schema $mathsfProv(lceilvarphi_nrceil)tovarphi_n$ for each $n$ then it would be indeed be inconsistent. This all holds for far weaker than ZFC as well.







          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          user122495 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer






          New contributor




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          answered 2 hours ago









          user122495

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          1012




          New contributor




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          New contributor





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              up vote
              4
              down vote













              As others have suggested, the key is to think about how we would actually go about writing down the predicate $psi(x)$ in the language of set theory. The "$n$" in $varphi_n$ is in the metatheory, so on its face, you really can't.



              The best you could hope for is to write something equivalent to this, through formalization of syntax. You can certainly formalize and enumerate the one-variable formulas of $L_in$ in set theory, and formalize the substitution of a set parameter for a variable. Then you want to write something like "$kinomega$ and $varphi_k(k) $ holds."



              It's the "$varphi_k(k)$ holds" part that is problematic. It requires we have a truth predicate that expresses the notion of a sentence holding. So another way of looking at what you've written is as a proof that a truth predicate does not exist. This is Tarski's theorem.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                4
                down vote













                As others have suggested, the key is to think about how we would actually go about writing down the predicate $psi(x)$ in the language of set theory. The "$n$" in $varphi_n$ is in the metatheory, so on its face, you really can't.



                The best you could hope for is to write something equivalent to this, through formalization of syntax. You can certainly formalize and enumerate the one-variable formulas of $L_in$ in set theory, and formalize the substitution of a set parameter for a variable. Then you want to write something like "$kinomega$ and $varphi_k(k) $ holds."



                It's the "$varphi_k(k)$ holds" part that is problematic. It requires we have a truth predicate that expresses the notion of a sentence holding. So another way of looking at what you've written is as a proof that a truth predicate does not exist. This is Tarski's theorem.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  4
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  4
                  down vote









                  As others have suggested, the key is to think about how we would actually go about writing down the predicate $psi(x)$ in the language of set theory. The "$n$" in $varphi_n$ is in the metatheory, so on its face, you really can't.



                  The best you could hope for is to write something equivalent to this, through formalization of syntax. You can certainly formalize and enumerate the one-variable formulas of $L_in$ in set theory, and formalize the substitution of a set parameter for a variable. Then you want to write something like "$kinomega$ and $varphi_k(k) $ holds."



                  It's the "$varphi_k(k)$ holds" part that is problematic. It requires we have a truth predicate that expresses the notion of a sentence holding. So another way of looking at what you've written is as a proof that a truth predicate does not exist. This is Tarski's theorem.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  As others have suggested, the key is to think about how we would actually go about writing down the predicate $psi(x)$ in the language of set theory. The "$n$" in $varphi_n$ is in the metatheory, so on its face, you really can't.



                  The best you could hope for is to write something equivalent to this, through formalization of syntax. You can certainly formalize and enumerate the one-variable formulas of $L_in$ in set theory, and formalize the substitution of a set parameter for a variable. Then you want to write something like "$kinomega$ and $varphi_k(k) $ holds."



                  It's the "$varphi_k(k)$ holds" part that is problematic. It requires we have a truth predicate that expresses the notion of a sentence holding. So another way of looking at what you've written is as a proof that a truth predicate does not exist. This is Tarski's theorem.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 2 hours ago









                  spaceisdarkgreen

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