“Teach someone something†or “teach something to someoneâ€
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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- Daisy was teaching Taekwondo to a group of children.
- Daisy was teaching a group of children Taekwondo.
Which is the correct usage of "teach"?
verbs
edited Aug 15 at 17:51
jwodder
13314
asked Aug 15 at 8:35
Mike Philip
1079
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
- Daisy was teaching Taekwondo to a group of children.
- Daisy was teaching a group of children Taekwondo.
Which is the correct usage of "teach"?
verbs
edited Aug 15 at 17:51
jwodder
13314
asked Aug 15 at 8:35
Mike Philip
1079
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
- Daisy was teaching Taekwondo to a group of children.
- Daisy was teaching a group of children Taekwondo.
Which is the correct usage of "teach"?
verbs
edited Aug 15 at 17:51
jwodder
13314
asked Aug 15 at 8:35
Mike Philip
1079
- Daisy was teaching Taekwondo to a group of children.
- Daisy was teaching a group of children Taekwondo.
Which is the correct usage of "teach"?
verbs
verbs
edited Aug 15 at 17:51
jwodder
13314
asked Aug 15 at 8:35
Mike Philip
1079
edited Aug 15 at 17:51
jwodder
13314
asked Aug 15 at 8:35
Mike Philip
1079
edited Aug 15 at 17:51
jwodder
13314
edited Aug 15 at 17:51
jwodder
13314
edited Aug 15 at 17:51
jwodder
13314
13314
asked Aug 15 at 8:35
Mike Philip
1079
asked Aug 15 at 8:35
Mike Philip
1079
asked Aug 15 at 8:35
Mike Philip
1079
1079
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
15
down vote
accepted
Both are valid forms; teach somebody something and teach something to somebody are interchangeable. The former perhaps is marginally more common in everyday usage.
answered Aug 15 at 8:47
david_c
534110
Note that when the "something" is not literally a subject to be taught, it pretty much has to be the first version. "I'll teach you something" (literally the word "something"), "I'll teach you a lesson" (common phrase), "I'll teach you how to fish" (how to do something). Meanwhile the word "it" must use the second version: "I'll teach it to you", not "I'll teach you it".
– BallpointBen
Aug 15 at 19:22
1
@BallpointBen The reason that each of your first 2 examples is the only valid form is that the noun phrase for the person being taught is a pronoun, and the other noun phrase is not. In such a case, the pronoun must go between the verb and the other object. However, if the noun phrase for the person being taught is not a pronoun, we may have e.g. "I taught something to a guy I met", "I'll teach a lesson to those kids".
– Rosie F
Aug 15 at 19:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
The first is more explicit. The second is acceptable, but this usage can be harder to parse, especially in more complicated sentences. For instance, "Daisy was teaching New York Chinese Americans British English" is much more confusing than "Daisy was teach British English to Chinese-American students from New York".
answered Aug 15 at 18:48
Acccumulation
87916
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Both forms are acceptable. It's worth knowing that second sentence construction is one with indirect objects, which represent the recipient of the direct object. In fact, alternative phrasings that avoid indirect objects almost always use "to" or "for" like in your first sentence.
There isn't any real difference between the meaning of the two sentences. There might be a small difference in emphasis due to word order (did we first think about what was taught or who we're teaching?), but that's trivial.
answered Aug 15 at 20:12
ryanyuyu
663614
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
15
down vote
accepted
Both are valid forms; teach somebody something and teach something to somebody are interchangeable. The former perhaps is marginally more common in everyday usage.
answered Aug 15 at 8:47
david_c
534110
Note that when the "something" is not literally a subject to be taught, it pretty much has to be the first version. "I'll teach you something" (literally the word "something"), "I'll teach you a lesson" (common phrase), "I'll teach you how to fish" (how to do something). Meanwhile the word "it" must use the second version: "I'll teach it to you", not "I'll teach you it".
– BallpointBen
Aug 15 at 19:22
1
@BallpointBen The reason that each of your first 2 examples is the only valid form is that the noun phrase for the person being taught is a pronoun, and the other noun phrase is not. In such a case, the pronoun must go between the verb and the other object. However, if the noun phrase for the person being taught is not a pronoun, we may have e.g. "I taught something to a guy I met", "I'll teach a lesson to those kids".
– Rosie F
Aug 15 at 19:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
15
down vote
accepted
Both are valid forms; teach somebody something and teach something to somebody are interchangeable. The former perhaps is marginally more common in everyday usage.
answered Aug 15 at 8:47
david_c
534110
Note that when the "something" is not literally a subject to be taught, it pretty much has to be the first version. "I'll teach you something" (literally the word "something"), "I'll teach you a lesson" (common phrase), "I'll teach you how to fish" (how to do something). Meanwhile the word "it" must use the second version: "I'll teach it to you", not "I'll teach you it".
– BallpointBen
Aug 15 at 19:22
1
@BallpointBen The reason that each of your first 2 examples is the only valid form is that the noun phrase for the person being taught is a pronoun, and the other noun phrase is not. In such a case, the pronoun must go between the verb and the other object. However, if the noun phrase for the person being taught is not a pronoun, we may have e.g. "I taught something to a guy I met", "I'll teach a lesson to those kids".
– Rosie F
Aug 15 at 19:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
15
down vote
accepted
up vote
15
down vote
accepted
Both are valid forms; teach somebody something and teach something to somebody are interchangeable. The former perhaps is marginally more common in everyday usage.
answered Aug 15 at 8:47
david_c
534110
Both are valid forms; teach somebody something and teach something to somebody are interchangeable. The former perhaps is marginally more common in everyday usage.
answered Aug 15 at 8:47
david_c
534110
answered Aug 15 at 8:47
david_c
534110
answered Aug 15 at 8:47
david_c
534110
answered Aug 15 at 8:47
david_c
534110
534110
Note that when the "something" is not literally a subject to be taught, it pretty much has to be the first version. "I'll teach you something" (literally the word "something"), "I'll teach you a lesson" (common phrase), "I'll teach you how to fish" (how to do something). Meanwhile the word "it" must use the second version: "I'll teach it to you", not "I'll teach you it".
– BallpointBen
Aug 15 at 19:22
1
@BallpointBen The reason that each of your first 2 examples is the only valid form is that the noun phrase for the person being taught is a pronoun, and the other noun phrase is not. In such a case, the pronoun must go between the verb and the other object. However, if the noun phrase for the person being taught is not a pronoun, we may have e.g. "I taught something to a guy I met", "I'll teach a lesson to those kids".
– Rosie F
Aug 15 at 19:38
add a comment |Â
Note that when the "something" is not literally a subject to be taught, it pretty much has to be the first version. "I'll teach you something" (literally the word "something"), "I'll teach you a lesson" (common phrase), "I'll teach you how to fish" (how to do something). Meanwhile the word "it" must use the second version: "I'll teach it to you", not "I'll teach you it".
– BallpointBen
Aug 15 at 19:22
1
@BallpointBen The reason that each of your first 2 examples is the only valid form is that the noun phrase for the person being taught is a pronoun, and the other noun phrase is not. In such a case, the pronoun must go between the verb and the other object. However, if the noun phrase for the person being taught is not a pronoun, we may have e.g. "I taught something to a guy I met", "I'll teach a lesson to those kids".
– Rosie F
Aug 15 at 19:38
Note that when the "something" is not literally a subject to be taught, it pretty much has to be the first version. "I'll teach you something" (literally the word "something"), "I'll teach you a lesson" (common phrase), "I'll teach you how to fish" (how to do something). Meanwhile the word "it" must use the second version: "I'll teach it to you", not "I'll teach you it".
– BallpointBen
Aug 15 at 19:22
Note that when the "something" is not literally a subject to be taught, it pretty much has to be the first version. "I'll teach you something" (literally the word "something"), "I'll teach you a lesson" (common phrase), "I'll teach you how to fish" (how to do something). Meanwhile the word "it" must use the second version: "I'll teach it to you", not "I'll teach you it".
– BallpointBen
Aug 15 at 19:22
1
1
@BallpointBen The reason that each of your first 2 examples is the only valid form is that the noun phrase for the person being taught is a pronoun, and the other noun phrase is not. In such a case, the pronoun must go between the verb and the other object. However, if the noun phrase for the person being taught is not a pronoun, we may have e.g. "I taught something to a guy I met", "I'll teach a lesson to those kids".
– Rosie F
Aug 15 at 19:38
@BallpointBen The reason that each of your first 2 examples is the only valid form is that the noun phrase for the person being taught is a pronoun, and the other noun phrase is not. In such a case, the pronoun must go between the verb and the other object. However, if the noun phrase for the person being taught is not a pronoun, we may have e.g. "I taught something to a guy I met", "I'll teach a lesson to those kids".
– Rosie F
Aug 15 at 19:38
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
The first is more explicit. The second is acceptable, but this usage can be harder to parse, especially in more complicated sentences. For instance, "Daisy was teaching New York Chinese Americans British English" is much more confusing than "Daisy was teach British English to Chinese-American students from New York".
answered Aug 15 at 18:48
Acccumulation
87916
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
The first is more explicit. The second is acceptable, but this usage can be harder to parse, especially in more complicated sentences. For instance, "Daisy was teaching New York Chinese Americans British English" is much more confusing than "Daisy was teach British English to Chinese-American students from New York".
answered Aug 15 at 18:48
Acccumulation
87916
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
The first is more explicit. The second is acceptable, but this usage can be harder to parse, especially in more complicated sentences. For instance, "Daisy was teaching New York Chinese Americans British English" is much more confusing than "Daisy was teach British English to Chinese-American students from New York".
answered Aug 15 at 18:48
Acccumulation
87916
The first is more explicit. The second is acceptable, but this usage can be harder to parse, especially in more complicated sentences. For instance, "Daisy was teaching New York Chinese Americans British English" is much more confusing than "Daisy was teach British English to Chinese-American students from New York".
answered Aug 15 at 18:48
Acccumulation
87916
answered Aug 15 at 18:48
Acccumulation
87916
answered Aug 15 at 18:48
Acccumulation
87916
answered Aug 15 at 18:48
Acccumulation
87916
87916
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Both forms are acceptable. It's worth knowing that second sentence construction is one with indirect objects, which represent the recipient of the direct object. In fact, alternative phrasings that avoid indirect objects almost always use "to" or "for" like in your first sentence.
There isn't any real difference between the meaning of the two sentences. There might be a small difference in emphasis due to word order (did we first think about what was taught or who we're teaching?), but that's trivial.
answered Aug 15 at 20:12
ryanyuyu
663614
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Both forms are acceptable. It's worth knowing that second sentence construction is one with indirect objects, which represent the recipient of the direct object. In fact, alternative phrasings that avoid indirect objects almost always use "to" or "for" like in your first sentence.
There isn't any real difference between the meaning of the two sentences. There might be a small difference in emphasis due to word order (did we first think about what was taught or who we're teaching?), but that's trivial.
answered Aug 15 at 20:12
ryanyuyu
663614
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Both forms are acceptable. It's worth knowing that second sentence construction is one with indirect objects, which represent the recipient of the direct object. In fact, alternative phrasings that avoid indirect objects almost always use "to" or "for" like in your first sentence.
There isn't any real difference between the meaning of the two sentences. There might be a small difference in emphasis due to word order (did we first think about what was taught or who we're teaching?), but that's trivial.
answered Aug 15 at 20:12
ryanyuyu
663614
Both forms are acceptable. It's worth knowing that second sentence construction is one with indirect objects, which represent the recipient of the direct object. In fact, alternative phrasings that avoid indirect objects almost always use "to" or "for" like in your first sentence.
There isn't any real difference between the meaning of the two sentences. There might be a small difference in emphasis due to word order (did we first think about what was taught or who we're teaching?), but that's trivial.
answered Aug 15 at 20:12
ryanyuyu
663614
answered Aug 15 at 20:12
ryanyuyu
663614
answered Aug 15 at 20:12
ryanyuyu
663614
answered Aug 15 at 20:12
ryanyuyu
663614
663614
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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