Conditional expectation of uniform random variable given order statistics

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Assume X = $(X_1, ..., X_n)$ ~ $U(theta, 2theta)$, where $theta in BbbR^+$.



How does one calculate the conditional expectation of $E[X_1|X_(1),X_(n)]$, where $X_(1)$ and $X_(n)$ are the smallest and largest order statistics respectively?



My first thought would be that since the order statistics limit the range, it is simply $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2$, but im not sure if this is correct!










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    $begingroup$
    This post on math SE could be helpful
    $endgroup$
    – kjetil b halvorsen
    Mar 5 at 13:25















8












$begingroup$


Assume X = $(X_1, ..., X_n)$ ~ $U(theta, 2theta)$, where $theta in BbbR^+$.



How does one calculate the conditional expectation of $E[X_1|X_(1),X_(n)]$, where $X_(1)$ and $X_(n)$ are the smallest and largest order statistics respectively?



My first thought would be that since the order statistics limit the range, it is simply $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2$, but im not sure if this is correct!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This post on math SE could be helpful
    $endgroup$
    – kjetil b halvorsen
    Mar 5 at 13:25













8












8








8


2



$begingroup$


Assume X = $(X_1, ..., X_n)$ ~ $U(theta, 2theta)$, where $theta in BbbR^+$.



How does one calculate the conditional expectation of $E[X_1|X_(1),X_(n)]$, where $X_(1)$ and $X_(n)$ are the smallest and largest order statistics respectively?



My first thought would be that since the order statistics limit the range, it is simply $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2$, but im not sure if this is correct!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Assume X = $(X_1, ..., X_n)$ ~ $U(theta, 2theta)$, where $theta in BbbR^+$.



How does one calculate the conditional expectation of $E[X_1|X_(1),X_(n)]$, where $X_(1)$ and $X_(n)$ are the smallest and largest order statistics respectively?



My first thought would be that since the order statistics limit the range, it is simply $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2$, but im not sure if this is correct!







mathematical-statistics expected-value uniform conditional-expectation order-statistics






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asked Mar 5 at 11:36









N. QuizitiveN. Quizitive

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412







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This post on math SE could be helpful
    $endgroup$
    – kjetil b halvorsen
    Mar 5 at 13:25












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This post on math SE could be helpful
    $endgroup$
    – kjetil b halvorsen
    Mar 5 at 13:25







1




1




$begingroup$
This post on math SE could be helpful
$endgroup$
– kjetil b halvorsen
Mar 5 at 13:25




$begingroup$
This post on math SE could be helpful
$endgroup$
– kjetil b halvorsen
Mar 5 at 13:25










2 Answers
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active

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8












$begingroup$

Consider the case of an iid sample $X_1, X_2, ldots, X_n$ from a Uniform$(0,1)$ distribution. Scaling these variables by $theta$ and translating them by $theta$ endows them with a Uniform$(theta, 2theta)$ distribution. Everything relevant to this problem changes in the same way: the order statistics and the conditional expectations. Thus, the answer obtained in this special case will hold generally.



Let $1lt klt n.$ By emulating the reasoning at https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/225990/919 (or elsewhere), find that the joint distribution of $(X_(1), X_(k), X_(n))$ has density function



$$f_k;n(x,y,z) = mathcalI(0le xle yle z le 1) (y-x)^k-2(z-y)^n-k-1.$$



Fixing $(x,z)$ and viewing this as a function of $y,$ this is recognizable as a Beta$(k-1, n-k)$ distribution that has been scaled and translated into the interval $[x,z].$ Thus, the scale factor must be $z-x$ and the translation takes $0$ to $x.$



Since the expectation of a Beta$(k-1,n-k)$ distribution is $(k-1)/(n-1),$ we find that the conditional expectation of $X_(k)$ must be the scaled, translated expectation; namely,



$$mathbbEleft(X_(k)mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1.$$



The cases $k=1$ and $k=n$ are trivial: their conditional expectations are, respectively, $X_(1)$ and $X_(k).$



Let's find the expectation of the sum of all order statistics:



$$mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) = X_(1) + sum_k=2^n-1 left(X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1right) + X_(n).$$



The algebra comes down to obtaining the sum $$sum_k=2^n-1(k-1) = (n-1)(n-2)/2.$$



Thus



$$eqalign
mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) &= (n-1)X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frac(n-1)(n-2)2(n-1) + X_(n) \
&= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right).
$$



Finally, because the $X_i$ are identically distributed, they all have the same expectation, whence



$$eqalignnmathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) &= mathbbEleft(X_1right) + mathbbEleft(X_2right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_nright)\
&= mathbbEleft(X_(1)right) + mathbbEleft(X_(2)right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_(n)right) \
&= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right),
$$



with the unique solution




$$mathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = left(X_(n)+X_(1)right)/2.$$





It seems worth remarking that this result is not a sole consequence of the symmetry of the uniform distribution: it is particular to the uniform family of distributions. For some intuition, consider data drawn from a Beta$(a,a)$ distribution with $a lt 1.$ This distribution's probabilities are concentrated near $0$ and $1$ (its density has a U or "bathtub" shape). When $X_(n)lt 1/2,$ we can be sure most of the data are piled up close to $X_(1)$ and therefore will tend to have expectations less than the midpoint $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2;$ and when $X_(1)gt 1/2,$ the opposite happens and most of the data are likely piled up close to $X_(n).$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    The following is not a proof but a verification of the desired result once you know that $(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a complete statistic for $theta$ :



    Joint pdf of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_n$ is



    beginalign
    f_theta(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_theta<x_(1),x_(n)<2theta
    \&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_frac12x_(n)<theta<x_(1)quad,,thetainmathbb R^+
    endalign



    So $T=(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a sufficient statistic for $theta$. It can be shown that $T$ is also a complete statistic by proceeding along these lines.



    Then by Lehmann-Scheffe theorem, $E,[X_1mid T]$ is the UMVUE of $E(X_1)=frac3theta2$.



    Now, $frac1theta(X_i-theta)stackreltexti.i.dsim mathsf U(0,1)$, so that $frac1theta(X_(n)-theta)simmathsfBeta(n,1)$ and $frac1theta(X_(1)-theta)sim mathsfBeta(1,n)$.



    Therefore, $E(X_(n))=fracnthetan+1+theta=frac(2n+1)thetan+1$ and $E(X_(1))=fracthetan+1+theta=frac(n+2)thetan+1$.



    Hence,



    $$Eleft[frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))right]=frac12(n+1)left((n+2)theta+(2n+1)thetaright)=frac3theta2$$



    This proves that $frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$ is the UMVUE of $frac3theta2$ by Lehmann-Scheffe.



    Since UMVUE is unique whenever it exists, it verifies the claim that $E,[X_1mid T]=frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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    • $begingroup$
      +1 This answer is nice because it reveals a deeper way to understand the exercise and what it can teach us.
      $endgroup$
      – whuber
      Mar 6 at 15:48











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    8












    $begingroup$

    Consider the case of an iid sample $X_1, X_2, ldots, X_n$ from a Uniform$(0,1)$ distribution. Scaling these variables by $theta$ and translating them by $theta$ endows them with a Uniform$(theta, 2theta)$ distribution. Everything relevant to this problem changes in the same way: the order statistics and the conditional expectations. Thus, the answer obtained in this special case will hold generally.



    Let $1lt klt n.$ By emulating the reasoning at https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/225990/919 (or elsewhere), find that the joint distribution of $(X_(1), X_(k), X_(n))$ has density function



    $$f_k;n(x,y,z) = mathcalI(0le xle yle z le 1) (y-x)^k-2(z-y)^n-k-1.$$



    Fixing $(x,z)$ and viewing this as a function of $y,$ this is recognizable as a Beta$(k-1, n-k)$ distribution that has been scaled and translated into the interval $[x,z].$ Thus, the scale factor must be $z-x$ and the translation takes $0$ to $x.$



    Since the expectation of a Beta$(k-1,n-k)$ distribution is $(k-1)/(n-1),$ we find that the conditional expectation of $X_(k)$ must be the scaled, translated expectation; namely,



    $$mathbbEleft(X_(k)mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1.$$



    The cases $k=1$ and $k=n$ are trivial: their conditional expectations are, respectively, $X_(1)$ and $X_(k).$



    Let's find the expectation of the sum of all order statistics:



    $$mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) = X_(1) + sum_k=2^n-1 left(X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1right) + X_(n).$$



    The algebra comes down to obtaining the sum $$sum_k=2^n-1(k-1) = (n-1)(n-2)/2.$$



    Thus



    $$eqalign
    mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) &= (n-1)X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frac(n-1)(n-2)2(n-1) + X_(n) \
    &= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right).
    $$



    Finally, because the $X_i$ are identically distributed, they all have the same expectation, whence



    $$eqalignnmathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) &= mathbbEleft(X_1right) + mathbbEleft(X_2right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_nright)\
    &= mathbbEleft(X_(1)right) + mathbbEleft(X_(2)right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_(n)right) \
    &= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right),
    $$



    with the unique solution




    $$mathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = left(X_(n)+X_(1)right)/2.$$





    It seems worth remarking that this result is not a sole consequence of the symmetry of the uniform distribution: it is particular to the uniform family of distributions. For some intuition, consider data drawn from a Beta$(a,a)$ distribution with $a lt 1.$ This distribution's probabilities are concentrated near $0$ and $1$ (its density has a U or "bathtub" shape). When $X_(n)lt 1/2,$ we can be sure most of the data are piled up close to $X_(1)$ and therefore will tend to have expectations less than the midpoint $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2;$ and when $X_(1)gt 1/2,$ the opposite happens and most of the data are likely piled up close to $X_(n).$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      8












      $begingroup$

      Consider the case of an iid sample $X_1, X_2, ldots, X_n$ from a Uniform$(0,1)$ distribution. Scaling these variables by $theta$ and translating them by $theta$ endows them with a Uniform$(theta, 2theta)$ distribution. Everything relevant to this problem changes in the same way: the order statistics and the conditional expectations. Thus, the answer obtained in this special case will hold generally.



      Let $1lt klt n.$ By emulating the reasoning at https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/225990/919 (or elsewhere), find that the joint distribution of $(X_(1), X_(k), X_(n))$ has density function



      $$f_k;n(x,y,z) = mathcalI(0le xle yle z le 1) (y-x)^k-2(z-y)^n-k-1.$$



      Fixing $(x,z)$ and viewing this as a function of $y,$ this is recognizable as a Beta$(k-1, n-k)$ distribution that has been scaled and translated into the interval $[x,z].$ Thus, the scale factor must be $z-x$ and the translation takes $0$ to $x.$



      Since the expectation of a Beta$(k-1,n-k)$ distribution is $(k-1)/(n-1),$ we find that the conditional expectation of $X_(k)$ must be the scaled, translated expectation; namely,



      $$mathbbEleft(X_(k)mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1.$$



      The cases $k=1$ and $k=n$ are trivial: their conditional expectations are, respectively, $X_(1)$ and $X_(k).$



      Let's find the expectation of the sum of all order statistics:



      $$mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) = X_(1) + sum_k=2^n-1 left(X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1right) + X_(n).$$



      The algebra comes down to obtaining the sum $$sum_k=2^n-1(k-1) = (n-1)(n-2)/2.$$



      Thus



      $$eqalign
      mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) &= (n-1)X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frac(n-1)(n-2)2(n-1) + X_(n) \
      &= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right).
      $$



      Finally, because the $X_i$ are identically distributed, they all have the same expectation, whence



      $$eqalignnmathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) &= mathbbEleft(X_1right) + mathbbEleft(X_2right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_nright)\
      &= mathbbEleft(X_(1)right) + mathbbEleft(X_(2)right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_(n)right) \
      &= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right),
      $$



      with the unique solution




      $$mathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = left(X_(n)+X_(1)right)/2.$$





      It seems worth remarking that this result is not a sole consequence of the symmetry of the uniform distribution: it is particular to the uniform family of distributions. For some intuition, consider data drawn from a Beta$(a,a)$ distribution with $a lt 1.$ This distribution's probabilities are concentrated near $0$ and $1$ (its density has a U or "bathtub" shape). When $X_(n)lt 1/2,$ we can be sure most of the data are piled up close to $X_(1)$ and therefore will tend to have expectations less than the midpoint $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2;$ and when $X_(1)gt 1/2,$ the opposite happens and most of the data are likely piled up close to $X_(n).$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        8












        8








        8





        $begingroup$

        Consider the case of an iid sample $X_1, X_2, ldots, X_n$ from a Uniform$(0,1)$ distribution. Scaling these variables by $theta$ and translating them by $theta$ endows them with a Uniform$(theta, 2theta)$ distribution. Everything relevant to this problem changes in the same way: the order statistics and the conditional expectations. Thus, the answer obtained in this special case will hold generally.



        Let $1lt klt n.$ By emulating the reasoning at https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/225990/919 (or elsewhere), find that the joint distribution of $(X_(1), X_(k), X_(n))$ has density function



        $$f_k;n(x,y,z) = mathcalI(0le xle yle z le 1) (y-x)^k-2(z-y)^n-k-1.$$



        Fixing $(x,z)$ and viewing this as a function of $y,$ this is recognizable as a Beta$(k-1, n-k)$ distribution that has been scaled and translated into the interval $[x,z].$ Thus, the scale factor must be $z-x$ and the translation takes $0$ to $x.$



        Since the expectation of a Beta$(k-1,n-k)$ distribution is $(k-1)/(n-1),$ we find that the conditional expectation of $X_(k)$ must be the scaled, translated expectation; namely,



        $$mathbbEleft(X_(k)mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1.$$



        The cases $k=1$ and $k=n$ are trivial: their conditional expectations are, respectively, $X_(1)$ and $X_(k).$



        Let's find the expectation of the sum of all order statistics:



        $$mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) = X_(1) + sum_k=2^n-1 left(X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1right) + X_(n).$$



        The algebra comes down to obtaining the sum $$sum_k=2^n-1(k-1) = (n-1)(n-2)/2.$$



        Thus



        $$eqalign
        mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) &= (n-1)X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frac(n-1)(n-2)2(n-1) + X_(n) \
        &= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right).
        $$



        Finally, because the $X_i$ are identically distributed, they all have the same expectation, whence



        $$eqalignnmathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) &= mathbbEleft(X_1right) + mathbbEleft(X_2right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_nright)\
        &= mathbbEleft(X_(1)right) + mathbbEleft(X_(2)right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_(n)right) \
        &= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right),
        $$



        with the unique solution




        $$mathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = left(X_(n)+X_(1)right)/2.$$





        It seems worth remarking that this result is not a sole consequence of the symmetry of the uniform distribution: it is particular to the uniform family of distributions. For some intuition, consider data drawn from a Beta$(a,a)$ distribution with $a lt 1.$ This distribution's probabilities are concentrated near $0$ and $1$ (its density has a U or "bathtub" shape). When $X_(n)lt 1/2,$ we can be sure most of the data are piled up close to $X_(1)$ and therefore will tend to have expectations less than the midpoint $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2;$ and when $X_(1)gt 1/2,$ the opposite happens and most of the data are likely piled up close to $X_(n).$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Consider the case of an iid sample $X_1, X_2, ldots, X_n$ from a Uniform$(0,1)$ distribution. Scaling these variables by $theta$ and translating them by $theta$ endows them with a Uniform$(theta, 2theta)$ distribution. Everything relevant to this problem changes in the same way: the order statistics and the conditional expectations. Thus, the answer obtained in this special case will hold generally.



        Let $1lt klt n.$ By emulating the reasoning at https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/225990/919 (or elsewhere), find that the joint distribution of $(X_(1), X_(k), X_(n))$ has density function



        $$f_k;n(x,y,z) = mathcalI(0le xle yle z le 1) (y-x)^k-2(z-y)^n-k-1.$$



        Fixing $(x,z)$ and viewing this as a function of $y,$ this is recognizable as a Beta$(k-1, n-k)$ distribution that has been scaled and translated into the interval $[x,z].$ Thus, the scale factor must be $z-x$ and the translation takes $0$ to $x.$



        Since the expectation of a Beta$(k-1,n-k)$ distribution is $(k-1)/(n-1),$ we find that the conditional expectation of $X_(k)$ must be the scaled, translated expectation; namely,



        $$mathbbEleft(X_(k)mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1.$$



        The cases $k=1$ and $k=n$ are trivial: their conditional expectations are, respectively, $X_(1)$ and $X_(k).$



        Let's find the expectation of the sum of all order statistics:



        $$mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) = X_(1) + sum_k=2^n-1 left(X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frack-1n-1right) + X_(n).$$



        The algebra comes down to obtaining the sum $$sum_k=2^n-1(k-1) = (n-1)(n-2)/2.$$



        Thus



        $$eqalign
        mathbbEleft(sum_k=1^n X_(k)right) &= (n-1)X_(1) + left(X_(n)-X_(1)right) frac(n-1)(n-2)2(n-1) + X_(n) \
        &= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right).
        $$



        Finally, because the $X_i$ are identically distributed, they all have the same expectation, whence



        $$eqalignnmathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) &= mathbbEleft(X_1right) + mathbbEleft(X_2right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_nright)\
        &= mathbbEleft(X_(1)right) + mathbbEleft(X_(2)right) + cdots + mathbbEleft(X_(n)right) \
        &= fracn2left(X_(n)+X_(1)right),
        $$



        with the unique solution




        $$mathbbEleft(X_1mid X_(1), X_(n)right) = left(X_(n)+X_(1)right)/2.$$





        It seems worth remarking that this result is not a sole consequence of the symmetry of the uniform distribution: it is particular to the uniform family of distributions. For some intuition, consider data drawn from a Beta$(a,a)$ distribution with $a lt 1.$ This distribution's probabilities are concentrated near $0$ and $1$ (its density has a U or "bathtub" shape). When $X_(n)lt 1/2,$ we can be sure most of the data are piled up close to $X_(1)$ and therefore will tend to have expectations less than the midpoint $(X_(1)+X_(n))/2;$ and when $X_(1)gt 1/2,$ the opposite happens and most of the data are likely piled up close to $X_(n).$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Mar 5 at 14:36

























        answered Mar 5 at 13:46









        whuberwhuber

        206k33453821




        206k33453821























            1












            $begingroup$

            The following is not a proof but a verification of the desired result once you know that $(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a complete statistic for $theta$ :



            Joint pdf of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_n$ is



            beginalign
            f_theta(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_theta<x_(1),x_(n)<2theta
            \&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_frac12x_(n)<theta<x_(1)quad,,thetainmathbb R^+
            endalign



            So $T=(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a sufficient statistic for $theta$. It can be shown that $T$ is also a complete statistic by proceeding along these lines.



            Then by Lehmann-Scheffe theorem, $E,[X_1mid T]$ is the UMVUE of $E(X_1)=frac3theta2$.



            Now, $frac1theta(X_i-theta)stackreltexti.i.dsim mathsf U(0,1)$, so that $frac1theta(X_(n)-theta)simmathsfBeta(n,1)$ and $frac1theta(X_(1)-theta)sim mathsfBeta(1,n)$.



            Therefore, $E(X_(n))=fracnthetan+1+theta=frac(2n+1)thetan+1$ and $E(X_(1))=fracthetan+1+theta=frac(n+2)thetan+1$.



            Hence,



            $$Eleft[frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))right]=frac12(n+1)left((n+2)theta+(2n+1)thetaright)=frac3theta2$$



            This proves that $frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$ is the UMVUE of $frac3theta2$ by Lehmann-Scheffe.



            Since UMVUE is unique whenever it exists, it verifies the claim that $E,[X_1mid T]=frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              +1 This answer is nice because it reveals a deeper way to understand the exercise and what it can teach us.
              $endgroup$
              – whuber
              Mar 6 at 15:48















            1












            $begingroup$

            The following is not a proof but a verification of the desired result once you know that $(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a complete statistic for $theta$ :



            Joint pdf of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_n$ is



            beginalign
            f_theta(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_theta<x_(1),x_(n)<2theta
            \&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_frac12x_(n)<theta<x_(1)quad,,thetainmathbb R^+
            endalign



            So $T=(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a sufficient statistic for $theta$. It can be shown that $T$ is also a complete statistic by proceeding along these lines.



            Then by Lehmann-Scheffe theorem, $E,[X_1mid T]$ is the UMVUE of $E(X_1)=frac3theta2$.



            Now, $frac1theta(X_i-theta)stackreltexti.i.dsim mathsf U(0,1)$, so that $frac1theta(X_(n)-theta)simmathsfBeta(n,1)$ and $frac1theta(X_(1)-theta)sim mathsfBeta(1,n)$.



            Therefore, $E(X_(n))=fracnthetan+1+theta=frac(2n+1)thetan+1$ and $E(X_(1))=fracthetan+1+theta=frac(n+2)thetan+1$.



            Hence,



            $$Eleft[frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))right]=frac12(n+1)left((n+2)theta+(2n+1)thetaright)=frac3theta2$$



            This proves that $frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$ is the UMVUE of $frac3theta2$ by Lehmann-Scheffe.



            Since UMVUE is unique whenever it exists, it verifies the claim that $E,[X_1mid T]=frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              +1 This answer is nice because it reveals a deeper way to understand the exercise and what it can teach us.
              $endgroup$
              – whuber
              Mar 6 at 15:48













            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            The following is not a proof but a verification of the desired result once you know that $(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a complete statistic for $theta$ :



            Joint pdf of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_n$ is



            beginalign
            f_theta(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_theta<x_(1),x_(n)<2theta
            \&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_frac12x_(n)<theta<x_(1)quad,,thetainmathbb R^+
            endalign



            So $T=(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a sufficient statistic for $theta$. It can be shown that $T$ is also a complete statistic by proceeding along these lines.



            Then by Lehmann-Scheffe theorem, $E,[X_1mid T]$ is the UMVUE of $E(X_1)=frac3theta2$.



            Now, $frac1theta(X_i-theta)stackreltexti.i.dsim mathsf U(0,1)$, so that $frac1theta(X_(n)-theta)simmathsfBeta(n,1)$ and $frac1theta(X_(1)-theta)sim mathsfBeta(1,n)$.



            Therefore, $E(X_(n))=fracnthetan+1+theta=frac(2n+1)thetan+1$ and $E(X_(1))=fracthetan+1+theta=frac(n+2)thetan+1$.



            Hence,



            $$Eleft[frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))right]=frac12(n+1)left((n+2)theta+(2n+1)thetaright)=frac3theta2$$



            This proves that $frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$ is the UMVUE of $frac3theta2$ by Lehmann-Scheffe.



            Since UMVUE is unique whenever it exists, it verifies the claim that $E,[X_1mid T]=frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The following is not a proof but a verification of the desired result once you know that $(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a complete statistic for $theta$ :



            Joint pdf of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_n$ is



            beginalign
            f_theta(x_1,ldots,x_n)&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_theta<x_(1),x_(n)<2theta
            \&=frac1theta^nmathbf1_frac12x_(n)<theta<x_(1)quad,,thetainmathbb R^+
            endalign



            So $T=(X_(1),X_(n))$ is a sufficient statistic for $theta$. It can be shown that $T$ is also a complete statistic by proceeding along these lines.



            Then by Lehmann-Scheffe theorem, $E,[X_1mid T]$ is the UMVUE of $E(X_1)=frac3theta2$.



            Now, $frac1theta(X_i-theta)stackreltexti.i.dsim mathsf U(0,1)$, so that $frac1theta(X_(n)-theta)simmathsfBeta(n,1)$ and $frac1theta(X_(1)-theta)sim mathsfBeta(1,n)$.



            Therefore, $E(X_(n))=fracnthetan+1+theta=frac(2n+1)thetan+1$ and $E(X_(1))=fracthetan+1+theta=frac(n+2)thetan+1$.



            Hence,



            $$Eleft[frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))right]=frac12(n+1)left((n+2)theta+(2n+1)thetaright)=frac3theta2$$



            This proves that $frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$ is the UMVUE of $frac3theta2$ by Lehmann-Scheffe.



            Since UMVUE is unique whenever it exists, it verifies the claim that $E,[X_1mid T]=frac12(X_(1)+X_(n))$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 6 at 15:07









            StubbornAtomStubbornAtom

            2,8771532




            2,8771532











            • $begingroup$
              +1 This answer is nice because it reveals a deeper way to understand the exercise and what it can teach us.
              $endgroup$
              – whuber
              Mar 6 at 15:48
















            • $begingroup$
              +1 This answer is nice because it reveals a deeper way to understand the exercise and what it can teach us.
              $endgroup$
              – whuber
              Mar 6 at 15:48















            $begingroup$
            +1 This answer is nice because it reveals a deeper way to understand the exercise and what it can teach us.
            $endgroup$
            – whuber
            Mar 6 at 15:48




            $begingroup$
            +1 This answer is nice because it reveals a deeper way to understand the exercise and what it can teach us.
            $endgroup$
            – whuber
            Mar 6 at 15:48

















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