Is the following set a compact set?

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Let $A$ be defined as



$$A:=_C^1 leq 1.$$



I have shown that the set is precompact. But is $A$ a complete set? Or an other question: Is $A$ a closed set?










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  • Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 25 at 9:55










  • How did You show $A$ is precompact?
    – Peter Melech
    Nov 25 at 10:10














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $A$ be defined as



$$A:=_C^1 leq 1.$$



I have shown that the set is precompact. But is $A$ a complete set? Or an other question: Is $A$ a closed set?










share|cite|improve this question























  • Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 25 at 9:55










  • How did You show $A$ is precompact?
    – Peter Melech
    Nov 25 at 10:10












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $A$ be defined as



$$A:=_C^1 leq 1.$$



I have shown that the set is precompact. But is $A$ a complete set? Or an other question: Is $A$ a closed set?










share|cite|improve this question















Let $A$ be defined as



$$A:=_C^1 leq 1.$$



I have shown that the set is precompact. But is $A$ a complete set? Or an other question: Is $A$ a closed set?







general-topology functional-analysis compactness complete-spaces locally-compact-groups






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edited Nov 25 at 17:37









Yiorgos S. Smyrlis

62k1383161




62k1383161










asked Nov 25 at 9:44









MathCracky

445212




445212











  • Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 25 at 9:55










  • How did You show $A$ is precompact?
    – Peter Melech
    Nov 25 at 10:10
















  • Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 25 at 9:55










  • How did You show $A$ is precompact?
    – Peter Melech
    Nov 25 at 10:10















Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 9:55




Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 9:55












How did You show $A$ is precompact?
– Peter Melech
Nov 25 at 10:10




How did You show $A$ is precompact?
– Peter Melech
Nov 25 at 10:10










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote



accepted










The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.



But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.



I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
    – Yanko
    Nov 25 at 10:44










  • But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
    – MaoWao
    Nov 25 at 17:58










  • No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 25 at 18:04

















up vote
4
down vote













The answer is NO.



Consider the sequence
$$
f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
$$

Then
$$
|,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
$$

If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted










    The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.



    But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.



    I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 2




      Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
      – Yanko
      Nov 25 at 10:44










    • But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
      – MaoWao
      Nov 25 at 17:58










    • No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
      – José Carlos Santos
      Nov 25 at 18:04














    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted










    The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.



    But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.



    I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.






    share|cite|improve this answer


















    • 2




      Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
      – Yanko
      Nov 25 at 10:44










    • But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
      – MaoWao
      Nov 25 at 17:58










    • No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
      – José Carlos Santos
      Nov 25 at 18:04












    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted






    The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.



    But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.



    I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.



    But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.



    I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 25 at 10:03

























    answered Nov 25 at 9:58









    José Carlos Santos

    143k20112211




    143k20112211







    • 2




      Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
      – Yanko
      Nov 25 at 10:44










    • But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
      – MaoWao
      Nov 25 at 17:58










    • No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
      – José Carlos Santos
      Nov 25 at 18:04












    • 2




      Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
      – Yanko
      Nov 25 at 10:44










    • But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
      – MaoWao
      Nov 25 at 17:58










    • No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
      – José Carlos Santos
      Nov 25 at 18:04







    2




    2




    Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
    – Yanko
    Nov 25 at 10:44




    Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
    – Yanko
    Nov 25 at 10:44












    But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
    – MaoWao
    Nov 25 at 17:58




    But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
    – MaoWao
    Nov 25 at 17:58












    No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 25 at 18:04




    No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Nov 25 at 18:04










    up vote
    4
    down vote













    The answer is NO.



    Consider the sequence
    $$
    f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
    $$

    Then
    $$
    |,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
    $$

    If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
    converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      4
      down vote













      The answer is NO.



      Consider the sequence
      $$
      f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
      $$

      Then
      $$
      |,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
      $$

      If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
      converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        4
        down vote










        up vote
        4
        down vote









        The answer is NO.



        Consider the sequence
        $$
        f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
        $$

        Then
        $$
        |,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
        $$

        If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
        converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The answer is NO.



        Consider the sequence
        $$
        f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
        $$

        Then
        $$
        |,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
        $$

        If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
        converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 25 at 10:55









        Yiorgos S. Smyrlis

        62k1383161




        62k1383161



























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