How to find lower Riemann integral in given function?

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$f(x)$ defined on $[0,1]$ as following -
$$
beginalign
f(x) = begincases
0 & textif $x=0$\
frac1n & textif $1/(n+1)<xle 1/n$
endcases
endalign
$$



How to find lower Riemann integral of $f(x)$ from $0$ to $1$.
My question is different from How to find the Riemann integral of following function?
Since we know $f(x)$ has countable number of discontinuities hence it is Riemann integrable and we can find it's upper integral for getting the answer .But how to find lower Riemann integral of this function ?



EDIT - I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.










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  • Since it is Riemann integrable the lower integral is same as upper integral.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Dec 2 at 5:18










  • @ParamanandSingh I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.
    – Amit
    Dec 2 at 5:26














up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2












$f(x)$ defined on $[0,1]$ as following -
$$
beginalign
f(x) = begincases
0 & textif $x=0$\
frac1n & textif $1/(n+1)<xle 1/n$
endcases
endalign
$$



How to find lower Riemann integral of $f(x)$ from $0$ to $1$.
My question is different from How to find the Riemann integral of following function?
Since we know $f(x)$ has countable number of discontinuities hence it is Riemann integrable and we can find it's upper integral for getting the answer .But how to find lower Riemann integral of this function ?



EDIT - I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.










share|cite|improve this question























  • Since it is Riemann integrable the lower integral is same as upper integral.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Dec 2 at 5:18










  • @ParamanandSingh I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.
    – Amit
    Dec 2 at 5:26












up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2






2





$f(x)$ defined on $[0,1]$ as following -
$$
beginalign
f(x) = begincases
0 & textif $x=0$\
frac1n & textif $1/(n+1)<xle 1/n$
endcases
endalign
$$



How to find lower Riemann integral of $f(x)$ from $0$ to $1$.
My question is different from How to find the Riemann integral of following function?
Since we know $f(x)$ has countable number of discontinuities hence it is Riemann integrable and we can find it's upper integral for getting the answer .But how to find lower Riemann integral of this function ?



EDIT - I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.










share|cite|improve this question















$f(x)$ defined on $[0,1]$ as following -
$$
beginalign
f(x) = begincases
0 & textif $x=0$\
frac1n & textif $1/(n+1)<xle 1/n$
endcases
endalign
$$



How to find lower Riemann integral of $f(x)$ from $0$ to $1$.
My question is different from How to find the Riemann integral of following function?
Since we know $f(x)$ has countable number of discontinuities hence it is Riemann integrable and we can find it's upper integral for getting the answer .But how to find lower Riemann integral of this function ?



EDIT - I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.







real-analysis measure-theory riemann-integration






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edited Dec 2 at 5:26

























asked Dec 2 at 5:02









Amit

1398




1398











  • Since it is Riemann integrable the lower integral is same as upper integral.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Dec 2 at 5:18










  • @ParamanandSingh I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.
    – Amit
    Dec 2 at 5:26
















  • Since it is Riemann integrable the lower integral is same as upper integral.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Dec 2 at 5:18










  • @ParamanandSingh I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.
    – Amit
    Dec 2 at 5:26















Since it is Riemann integrable the lower integral is same as upper integral.
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 2 at 5:18




Since it is Riemann integrable the lower integral is same as upper integral.
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 2 at 5:18












@ParamanandSingh I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.
– Amit
Dec 2 at 5:26




@ParamanandSingh I know since $f(x)$ is Riemann integrable hence it's lower Riemann integral is same as upper Riemann integral.But how to find it by partitioning the domain or in other words by using definition of lower Riemann integral.
– Amit
Dec 2 at 5:26










3 Answers
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For every partition $P= x_j_0^n$ where $x_0 = 0, x_n = 1$, there is some $N$ s.t. $x_1 in (1/(N+1), 1/N]$. Then on $[0, x_1]$, the infimum is $0$. On $[1/(N+1), 1]$, $f$ is a step function, i.e. piecewise constant function, then the lower Riemann sum is easy to find:
$$
underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = sum_1^N int_1/(n+1)^1/n f = sum_1^N left(frac 1n - frac 1n+1right) frac 1n = -1 + frac 1N+1 +sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
$$

Thus
$$
-1 +frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f leqslant underline int_0^1 f leqslant underline int_0^x_1 f +underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant x_1 + underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = x_1 - 1+frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
$$



Now let the mesh $delta$ of $P$ goes to $0$. Since $x_1 leqslant delta$, $x_1 to 0$ as well, hence $1/(N+1) to 0$, then $Nto infty$. Take the limit $delta to 0^+$ w.r.t. the inequalities, we have
$$
underline int_0^1 f = -1+sum_1^infty frac 1n^2 =- 1 + frac pi^26.
$$






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    Consider the partitions $P_N=0cup frac1n: 1leq n leq N$. Then the lower sum is $$L(f;P_N)=sum limits _i=1^N m_ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)+m_0(frac1N-0)$$



    Then given any partition $P$ you can find an $N$ such that $L(f;P)leq L(f,P_N)$ (why?)



    And how $f$ is constant in each interval of the form $[1/(n+1),1/n]$ the infimum's $m_i$ are just $f(1/i)=1/i$ and $m_0=0$... We have
    $$L(f;P)= sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)$$



    Therefore,
    $$sup _P L(f;P)leq sup _P_N L(f;P_N)= lim _Nto infty sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right) = sum limits _i=1^infty frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)=fracpi^26 -1$$



    and you also can readly prove $geq$ to conclude equality.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      The function $f$ is riemann integrable , so that the function $F:[0,1]rightarrow Bbb R$ defined by $F(x)=underline int_x^1 f(t)dt $ is continuous. In particular, the limit $lim_xrightarrow 0 F(x)$ exists and equals to $F(0)$. That is $$underline int_0^1f(x)dx=F(0)=lim_nrightarrow infty underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt.$$ Now notice that in the interval $[frac1n+1,1]$ number of discontinuities of $f$ is finite, so that the riemann integral $underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt=sum_k=1^nfrac1k(frac1k-frac1k+1)=(sum_k=1^nfrac1k^2)-(1-frac1n+1)$. Therefore , $$underline int_0^1f(t)dt=fracpi^26-1.$$






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        3 Answers
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        3 Answers
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        active

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        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted










        For every partition $P= x_j_0^n$ where $x_0 = 0, x_n = 1$, there is some $N$ s.t. $x_1 in (1/(N+1), 1/N]$. Then on $[0, x_1]$, the infimum is $0$. On $[1/(N+1), 1]$, $f$ is a step function, i.e. piecewise constant function, then the lower Riemann sum is easy to find:
        $$
        underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = sum_1^N int_1/(n+1)^1/n f = sum_1^N left(frac 1n - frac 1n+1right) frac 1n = -1 + frac 1N+1 +sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
        $$

        Thus
        $$
        -1 +frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f leqslant underline int_0^1 f leqslant underline int_0^x_1 f +underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant x_1 + underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = x_1 - 1+frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
        $$



        Now let the mesh $delta$ of $P$ goes to $0$. Since $x_1 leqslant delta$, $x_1 to 0$ as well, hence $1/(N+1) to 0$, then $Nto infty$. Take the limit $delta to 0^+$ w.r.t. the inequalities, we have
        $$
        underline int_0^1 f = -1+sum_1^infty frac 1n^2 =- 1 + frac pi^26.
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer


























          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          For every partition $P= x_j_0^n$ where $x_0 = 0, x_n = 1$, there is some $N$ s.t. $x_1 in (1/(N+1), 1/N]$. Then on $[0, x_1]$, the infimum is $0$. On $[1/(N+1), 1]$, $f$ is a step function, i.e. piecewise constant function, then the lower Riemann sum is easy to find:
          $$
          underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = sum_1^N int_1/(n+1)^1/n f = sum_1^N left(frac 1n - frac 1n+1right) frac 1n = -1 + frac 1N+1 +sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
          $$

          Thus
          $$
          -1 +frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f leqslant underline int_0^1 f leqslant underline int_0^x_1 f +underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant x_1 + underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = x_1 - 1+frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
          $$



          Now let the mesh $delta$ of $P$ goes to $0$. Since $x_1 leqslant delta$, $x_1 to 0$ as well, hence $1/(N+1) to 0$, then $Nto infty$. Take the limit $delta to 0^+$ w.r.t. the inequalities, we have
          $$
          underline int_0^1 f = -1+sum_1^infty frac 1n^2 =- 1 + frac pi^26.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted






            For every partition $P= x_j_0^n$ where $x_0 = 0, x_n = 1$, there is some $N$ s.t. $x_1 in (1/(N+1), 1/N]$. Then on $[0, x_1]$, the infimum is $0$. On $[1/(N+1), 1]$, $f$ is a step function, i.e. piecewise constant function, then the lower Riemann sum is easy to find:
            $$
            underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = sum_1^N int_1/(n+1)^1/n f = sum_1^N left(frac 1n - frac 1n+1right) frac 1n = -1 + frac 1N+1 +sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
            $$

            Thus
            $$
            -1 +frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f leqslant underline int_0^1 f leqslant underline int_0^x_1 f +underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant x_1 + underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = x_1 - 1+frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
            $$



            Now let the mesh $delta$ of $P$ goes to $0$. Since $x_1 leqslant delta$, $x_1 to 0$ as well, hence $1/(N+1) to 0$, then $Nto infty$. Take the limit $delta to 0^+$ w.r.t. the inequalities, we have
            $$
            underline int_0^1 f = -1+sum_1^infty frac 1n^2 =- 1 + frac pi^26.
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            For every partition $P= x_j_0^n$ where $x_0 = 0, x_n = 1$, there is some $N$ s.t. $x_1 in (1/(N+1), 1/N]$. Then on $[0, x_1]$, the infimum is $0$. On $[1/(N+1), 1]$, $f$ is a step function, i.e. piecewise constant function, then the lower Riemann sum is easy to find:
            $$
            underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = sum_1^N int_1/(n+1)^1/n f = sum_1^N left(frac 1n - frac 1n+1right) frac 1n = -1 + frac 1N+1 +sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
            $$

            Thus
            $$
            -1 +frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f leqslant underline int_0^1 f leqslant underline int_0^x_1 f +underline int_x_1^1 f leqslant x_1 + underline int_1/(N+1)^1 f = x_1 - 1+frac 1N+1 + sum_1^N frac 1n^2.
            $$



            Now let the mesh $delta$ of $P$ goes to $0$. Since $x_1 leqslant delta$, $x_1 to 0$ as well, hence $1/(N+1) to 0$, then $Nto infty$. Take the limit $delta to 0^+$ w.r.t. the inequalities, we have
            $$
            underline int_0^1 f = -1+sum_1^infty frac 1n^2 =- 1 + frac pi^26.
            $$







            share|cite|improve this answer














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            edited Dec 2 at 6:05

























            answered Dec 2 at 5:49









            xbh

            5,4971422




            5,4971422




















                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Consider the partitions $P_N=0cup frac1n: 1leq n leq N$. Then the lower sum is $$L(f;P_N)=sum limits _i=1^N m_ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)+m_0(frac1N-0)$$



                Then given any partition $P$ you can find an $N$ such that $L(f;P)leq L(f,P_N)$ (why?)



                And how $f$ is constant in each interval of the form $[1/(n+1),1/n]$ the infimum's $m_i$ are just $f(1/i)=1/i$ and $m_0=0$... We have
                $$L(f;P)= sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)$$



                Therefore,
                $$sup _P L(f;P)leq sup _P_N L(f;P_N)= lim _Nto infty sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right) = sum limits _i=1^infty frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)=fracpi^26 -1$$



                and you also can readly prove $geq$ to conclude equality.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  Consider the partitions $P_N=0cup frac1n: 1leq n leq N$. Then the lower sum is $$L(f;P_N)=sum limits _i=1^N m_ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)+m_0(frac1N-0)$$



                  Then given any partition $P$ you can find an $N$ such that $L(f;P)leq L(f,P_N)$ (why?)



                  And how $f$ is constant in each interval of the form $[1/(n+1),1/n]$ the infimum's $m_i$ are just $f(1/i)=1/i$ and $m_0=0$... We have
                  $$L(f;P)= sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)$$



                  Therefore,
                  $$sup _P L(f;P)leq sup _P_N L(f;P_N)= lim _Nto infty sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right) = sum limits _i=1^infty frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)=fracpi^26 -1$$



                  and you also can readly prove $geq$ to conclude equality.






                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    Consider the partitions $P_N=0cup frac1n: 1leq n leq N$. Then the lower sum is $$L(f;P_N)=sum limits _i=1^N m_ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)+m_0(frac1N-0)$$



                    Then given any partition $P$ you can find an $N$ such that $L(f;P)leq L(f,P_N)$ (why?)



                    And how $f$ is constant in each interval of the form $[1/(n+1),1/n]$ the infimum's $m_i$ are just $f(1/i)=1/i$ and $m_0=0$... We have
                    $$L(f;P)= sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)$$



                    Therefore,
                    $$sup _P L(f;P)leq sup _P_N L(f;P_N)= lim _Nto infty sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right) = sum limits _i=1^infty frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)=fracpi^26 -1$$



                    and you also can readly prove $geq$ to conclude equality.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Consider the partitions $P_N=0cup frac1n: 1leq n leq N$. Then the lower sum is $$L(f;P_N)=sum limits _i=1^N m_ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)+m_0(frac1N-0)$$



                    Then given any partition $P$ you can find an $N$ such that $L(f;P)leq L(f,P_N)$ (why?)



                    And how $f$ is constant in each interval of the form $[1/(n+1),1/n]$ the infimum's $m_i$ are just $f(1/i)=1/i$ and $m_0=0$... We have
                    $$L(f;P)= sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)$$



                    Therefore,
                    $$sup _P L(f;P)leq sup _P_N L(f;P_N)= lim _Nto infty sum limits _i=1^N frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right) = sum limits _i=1^infty frac1ileft(frac1i-frac1i+1right)=fracpi^26 -1$$



                    and you also can readly prove $geq$ to conclude equality.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












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                    answered Dec 2 at 5:38









                    Robson

                    771221




                    771221




















                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        The function $f$ is riemann integrable , so that the function $F:[0,1]rightarrow Bbb R$ defined by $F(x)=underline int_x^1 f(t)dt $ is continuous. In particular, the limit $lim_xrightarrow 0 F(x)$ exists and equals to $F(0)$. That is $$underline int_0^1f(x)dx=F(0)=lim_nrightarrow infty underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt.$$ Now notice that in the interval $[frac1n+1,1]$ number of discontinuities of $f$ is finite, so that the riemann integral $underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt=sum_k=1^nfrac1k(frac1k-frac1k+1)=(sum_k=1^nfrac1k^2)-(1-frac1n+1)$. Therefore , $$underline int_0^1f(t)dt=fracpi^26-1.$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote













                          The function $f$ is riemann integrable , so that the function $F:[0,1]rightarrow Bbb R$ defined by $F(x)=underline int_x^1 f(t)dt $ is continuous. In particular, the limit $lim_xrightarrow 0 F(x)$ exists and equals to $F(0)$. That is $$underline int_0^1f(x)dx=F(0)=lim_nrightarrow infty underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt.$$ Now notice that in the interval $[frac1n+1,1]$ number of discontinuities of $f$ is finite, so that the riemann integral $underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt=sum_k=1^nfrac1k(frac1k-frac1k+1)=(sum_k=1^nfrac1k^2)-(1-frac1n+1)$. Therefore , $$underline int_0^1f(t)dt=fracpi^26-1.$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote









                            The function $f$ is riemann integrable , so that the function $F:[0,1]rightarrow Bbb R$ defined by $F(x)=underline int_x^1 f(t)dt $ is continuous. In particular, the limit $lim_xrightarrow 0 F(x)$ exists and equals to $F(0)$. That is $$underline int_0^1f(x)dx=F(0)=lim_nrightarrow infty underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt.$$ Now notice that in the interval $[frac1n+1,1]$ number of discontinuities of $f$ is finite, so that the riemann integral $underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt=sum_k=1^nfrac1k(frac1k-frac1k+1)=(sum_k=1^nfrac1k^2)-(1-frac1n+1)$. Therefore , $$underline int_0^1f(t)dt=fracpi^26-1.$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            The function $f$ is riemann integrable , so that the function $F:[0,1]rightarrow Bbb R$ defined by $F(x)=underline int_x^1 f(t)dt $ is continuous. In particular, the limit $lim_xrightarrow 0 F(x)$ exists and equals to $F(0)$. That is $$underline int_0^1f(x)dx=F(0)=lim_nrightarrow infty underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt.$$ Now notice that in the interval $[frac1n+1,1]$ number of discontinuities of $f$ is finite, so that the riemann integral $underline int_frac1n+1^1f(t)dt=sum_k=1^nfrac1k(frac1k-frac1k+1)=(sum_k=1^nfrac1k^2)-(1-frac1n+1)$. Therefore , $$underline int_0^1f(t)dt=fracpi^26-1.$$







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                            edited Dec 2 at 6:15

























                            answered Dec 2 at 5:35









                            UserS

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