What is an example of a proof by minimal counterexample?

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I was reading about proof by infinite descent, and proof by minimal counterexample. My understanding of it is that we assume the existance of some smallest counterexample $A$ that disproves some proposition $P$, then go onto show that there is some smaller counterexample to this which to me seems like a mix of infinite descent and 'reverse proof by contradiction'.



My question is, how do we know that there might be some counterexample? Furthermore, are there any examples of this?










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  • 3




    If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
    – saulspatz
    Nov 17 at 19:14










  • Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
    – Ethan Bolker
    Nov 17 at 19:25






  • 1




    Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
    – Uwe
    Nov 17 at 21:52










  • Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
    – forest
    2 days ago






  • 2




    (If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
    – user202729
    2 days ago














up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1












I was reading about proof by infinite descent, and proof by minimal counterexample. My understanding of it is that we assume the existance of some smallest counterexample $A$ that disproves some proposition $P$, then go onto show that there is some smaller counterexample to this which to me seems like a mix of infinite descent and 'reverse proof by contradiction'.



My question is, how do we know that there might be some counterexample? Furthermore, are there any examples of this?










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 3




    If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
    – saulspatz
    Nov 17 at 19:14










  • Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
    – Ethan Bolker
    Nov 17 at 19:25






  • 1




    Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
    – Uwe
    Nov 17 at 21:52










  • Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
    – forest
    2 days ago






  • 2




    (If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
    – user202729
    2 days ago












up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1






1





I was reading about proof by infinite descent, and proof by minimal counterexample. My understanding of it is that we assume the existance of some smallest counterexample $A$ that disproves some proposition $P$, then go onto show that there is some smaller counterexample to this which to me seems like a mix of infinite descent and 'reverse proof by contradiction'.



My question is, how do we know that there might be some counterexample? Furthermore, are there any examples of this?










share|cite|improve this question















I was reading about proof by infinite descent, and proof by minimal counterexample. My understanding of it is that we assume the existance of some smallest counterexample $A$ that disproves some proposition $P$, then go onto show that there is some smaller counterexample to this which to me seems like a mix of infinite descent and 'reverse proof by contradiction'.



My question is, how do we know that there might be some counterexample? Furthermore, are there any examples of this?







proof-writing examples-counterexamples infinite-descent






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edited Nov 17 at 22:00









José Carlos Santos

139k18111203




139k18111203










asked Nov 17 at 19:09









Jonathan Low

465




465







  • 3




    If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
    – saulspatz
    Nov 17 at 19:14










  • Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
    – Ethan Bolker
    Nov 17 at 19:25






  • 1




    Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
    – Uwe
    Nov 17 at 21:52










  • Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
    – forest
    2 days ago






  • 2




    (If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
    – user202729
    2 days ago












  • 3




    If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
    – saulspatz
    Nov 17 at 19:14










  • Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
    – Ethan Bolker
    Nov 17 at 19:25






  • 1




    Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
    – Uwe
    Nov 17 at 21:52










  • Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
    – forest
    2 days ago






  • 2




    (If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
    – user202729
    2 days ago







3




3




If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
– saulspatz
Nov 17 at 19:14




If there aren't any counterexamples, the theorem is true, and we're done, so it's only the case where there is a counterexample that we have to deal with. This method of proof goes back (at least) to Fermat, who called it "proof by infinite descent." Google that, and you'll find lots of examples.
– saulspatz
Nov 17 at 19:14












Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
– Ethan Bolker
Nov 17 at 19:25




Related: matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/10021/…
– Ethan Bolker
Nov 17 at 19:25




1




1




Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
– Uwe
Nov 17 at 21:52




Any uneven natural number is prime. Counterexample 9 = 3*3.
– Uwe
Nov 17 at 21:52












Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
– forest
2 days ago




Are you referring to things like i.stack.imgur.com/RxeiH.png?
– forest
2 days ago




2




2




(If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
– user202729
2 days ago




(If I understand correctly) "proof by minimal counterexample" proves that a minimal counterexample does not exist (wikipedia), and the 2 comments above are not correct.
– user202729
2 days ago










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

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up vote
22
down vote



accepted










Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin2,3,ldots,n-1$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    13
    down vote













    Such a proof will often go as follows.



    • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

    • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

    • Consider the smallest counterexample.

    • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

    • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

    • Therefore $P$ is true.





    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      9
      down vote













      Assume the $sqrt2$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt2=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



      I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.






      share|cite|improve this answer
















      • 1




        In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
        – LarsH
        Nov 18 at 0:50







      • 1




        It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
        – Mason
        Nov 18 at 0:57






      • 3




        @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
        – Dan M.
        Nov 18 at 2:29










      • Here are the details
        – Mason
        Nov 18 at 2:38






      • 1




        @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
        – chi
        2 days ago


















      up vote
      1
      down vote













      A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



      Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



      Proof $bf 1, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



      Proof $bf 2, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



      Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



      $begineqnarrayrm S closed under bf subtraction &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf mod = remainder = repeated subtraction \
      &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf gcd = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) endeqnarray$



      This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.






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        4 Answers
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        4 Answers
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        active

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        up vote
        22
        down vote



        accepted










        Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin2,3,ldots,n-1$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          22
          down vote



          accepted










          Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin2,3,ldots,n-1$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















            up vote
            22
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            22
            down vote



            accepted






            Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin2,3,ldots,n-1$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Consider, for instance, the statment: every $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ can be written as a product of prime numbers (including the case in which there's a single prime number appearing only once). Suppose otherwise. Then there would be a smallest $ninmathbbNsetminus1$ that would not be possible the express as a product of prime numbers. In particular, this implies that $n$ cannot be a prime number. Since $n$ is also not $1$, it can be written as $atimes b$, where $a,bin2,3,ldots,n-1$. But, since $n$ is the smallest counterexample, neither $a$ nor $b$ are counterexamples and therefore both of them can be written as a product of prime numbers. But then $n(=atimes b)$ can be written in such a way too.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 17 at 19:16









            José Carlos Santos

            139k18111203




            139k18111203




















                up vote
                13
                down vote













                Such a proof will often go as follows.



                • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

                • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

                • Consider the smallest counterexample.

                • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

                • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

                • Therefore $P$ is true.





                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  13
                  down vote













                  Such a proof will often go as follows.



                  • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

                  • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

                  • Consider the smallest counterexample.

                  • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

                  • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

                  • Therefore $P$ is true.





                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    13
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    13
                    down vote









                    Such a proof will often go as follows.



                    • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

                    • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

                    • Consider the smallest counterexample.

                    • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

                    • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

                    • Therefore $P$ is true.





                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Such a proof will often go as follows.



                    • Assume for contradiction that there is a counterexample to $P$ within some well-ordered set $X$.

                    • Consider the (certainly non-empty) set of all $X$ which are counterexamples to $P$. This set has a least element (that's what it means to be a well-order), so…

                    • Consider the smallest counterexample.

                    • Show that you can find a smaller counterexample.

                    • Contradiction, so there can't have been any counterexamples to $P$ after all.

                    • Therefore $P$ is true.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 17 at 19:16









                    Patrick Stevens

                    27.8k52873




                    27.8k52873




















                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote













                        Assume the $sqrt2$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt2=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



                        I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
















                        • 1




                          In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                          – LarsH
                          Nov 18 at 0:50







                        • 1




                          It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                          – Mason
                          Nov 18 at 0:57






                        • 3




                          @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                          – Dan M.
                          Nov 18 at 2:29










                        • Here are the details
                          – Mason
                          Nov 18 at 2:38






                        • 1




                          @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                          – chi
                          2 days ago















                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote













                        Assume the $sqrt2$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt2=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



                        I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
















                        • 1




                          In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                          – LarsH
                          Nov 18 at 0:50







                        • 1




                          It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                          – Mason
                          Nov 18 at 0:57






                        • 3




                          @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                          – Dan M.
                          Nov 18 at 2:29










                        • Here are the details
                          – Mason
                          Nov 18 at 2:38






                        • 1




                          @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                          – chi
                          2 days ago













                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote









                        Assume the $sqrt2$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt2=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



                        I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.






                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        Assume the $sqrt2$ is rational then there are whole numbers $(a,b)$ such that $sqrt2=a/b$ and $a$ is the smallest number with this property but then we find that $a/2, b/2$ are also whole numbers with this property. So there is a smaller example.



                        I think this must be the example people are the most familiar with and it's a kind of infinite descent even though we often don't refer to it as such.







                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer










                        answered Nov 17 at 19:20









                        Mason

                        1,6501325




                        1,6501325







                        • 1




                          In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                          – LarsH
                          Nov 18 at 0:50







                        • 1




                          It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                          – Mason
                          Nov 18 at 0:57






                        • 3




                          @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                          – Dan M.
                          Nov 18 at 2:29










                        • Here are the details
                          – Mason
                          Nov 18 at 2:38






                        • 1




                          @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                          – chi
                          2 days ago













                        • 1




                          In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                          – LarsH
                          Nov 18 at 0:50







                        • 1




                          It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                          – Mason
                          Nov 18 at 0:57






                        • 3




                          @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                          – Dan M.
                          Nov 18 at 2:29










                        • Here are the details
                          – Mason
                          Nov 18 at 2:38






                        • 1




                          @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                          – chi
                          2 days ago








                        1




                        1




                        In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                        – LarsH
                        Nov 18 at 0:50





                        In this proof how do we know that $a/2$, $b/2$ are also whole numbers? (I'm probably missing something obvious.)
                        – LarsH
                        Nov 18 at 0:50





                        1




                        1




                        It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                        – Mason
                        Nov 18 at 0:57




                        It isn't obvious but it is infamous. I can't find it for you now because I am out to dinner. But you can find by looking up the classic proof regarding the irrationality of square root of 2. Its in Bertrand Russell's history of western philosophy...
                        – Mason
                        Nov 18 at 0:57




                        3




                        3




                        @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                        – Dan M.
                        Nov 18 at 2:29




                        @LarsH ny squaring the equation and wiggling it a bit you can prove that a is even, and then that b is also even.
                        – Dan M.
                        Nov 18 at 2:29












                        Here are the details
                        – Mason
                        Nov 18 at 2:38




                        Here are the details
                        – Mason
                        Nov 18 at 2:38




                        1




                        1




                        @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                        – chi
                        2 days ago





                        @LarsH We have $2 = a^2/b^2$ hence $2b^2 = a^2$ from which: $a^2$ is even, hence $a$ is even, hence $a^2$ is a multiple of 4, hence $b^2=a^2/2$ is even, hence $b$ is even. So, both $a,b$ are even.
                        – chi
                        2 days ago











                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



                        Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



                        Proof $bf 1, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



                        Proof $bf 2, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



                        Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



                        $begineqnarrayrm S closed under bf subtraction &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf mod = remainder = repeated subtraction \
                        &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf gcd = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) endeqnarray$



                        This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



                          Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



                          Proof $bf 1, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



                          Proof $bf 2, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



                          Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



                          $begineqnarrayrm S closed under bf subtraction &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf mod = remainder = repeated subtraction \
                          &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf gcd = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) endeqnarray$



                          This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.






                          share|cite|improve this answer






















                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote









                            A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



                            Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



                            Proof $bf 1, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



                            Proof $bf 2, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



                            Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



                            $begineqnarrayrm S closed under bf subtraction &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf mod = remainder = repeated subtraction \
                            &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf gcd = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) endeqnarray$



                            This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            A fundamental example in number theory is descent by (Euclidean) division with remainder (or, equivalently, by repeated subtraction), as in the following basic result.



                            Lemma $ $ Let $,S,$ be a nonempty set of positive integers that is closed under subtraction $> 0,,$ i.e. for all $ ,n,min S, ,$ $ n > m Rightarrow n-m, in, S.,$ Then the least $ :ellin S,$ divides every element of $, S.$



                            Proof $bf 1, $ If not there is a least nonmultiple $ ,nin S,,$ contra $ ,n-ell in S,$ is a nonmultiple of $ ,ell.$



                            Proof $bf 2, , S,$ closed under subtraction $ ,Rightarrow,S,$ closed under remainder (mod), when it is $ne 0,$ since mod is simply repeated subtraction, i.e. $ abmod b, =, a - k b, =, a!-!b!-!b!-cdots! -!b.,$ Therefore $ ,nin S,$ $Rightarrow$ $ , (nbmod ell) = 0,,$ else it is in $, S,$ and smaller than $ ,ell,,$ contra minimality of $ ,ell.$



                            Remark $ $ In a nutshell, two applications of induction yield the following inferences



                            $begineqnarrayrm S closed under bf subtraction &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf mod = remainder = repeated subtraction \
                            &:Rightarrow:&rm S closed under bf gcd = repeated mod (Euclid's algorithm) endeqnarray$



                            This yields Bezout's GCD identity: the set $ ,S,$ of integers of form $ ,a_1,x_1 + cdots + a_n x_n, x_iin mathbb Z,,$ is closed under subtraction so Lemma $Rightarrow$ every positive $ ,kin S,$ is divisible by $ ,d = $ least positive $ in S.,$ Therefore $ ,a_iin S$ $,Rightarrow,$ $ dmid a_i,,$ i.e. $ ,d,$ is a common divisor of all $ ,a_i,,$ necessarily the greatest such because $ cmid a_i$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cmid d = a_!,x_1!+!cdots!+!a_nx_n$ $Rightarrow$ $ ,cle d.,$ When interpreted constructively, this yields the extended Euclidean algorithm for the gcd.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












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                            answered Nov 17 at 22:37









                            Bill Dubuque

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