Homomorphic image of modular lattice is modular?

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Let L be modular lattice, M be lattice and $f:Lto M$ be a homomorphism. I want to show $f(L)$ is a modular lattice..



We already know that homomorphic image of lattice is lattice.
So we only want to show that if $f(a)leq f(b)$ then $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b))= (f(a)vee f(x))wedge f(b) $ for $a,b,x in L$



Since L is modular $aleq b$ implies $a vee(xwedge b)= (avee x)wedge b$



My problem is:



I must begin with the assumption $f(a)leq f(b)$ then show $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b))= (f(a)vee f(x))wedge f(b) $ for which I need to use $a vee(xwedge b)= (avee x)wedge b$



But $f(a)leq f(b)$ need not necessarily imply $aleq b$ since it is only homomorphism and not isomorphism.










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    up vote
    4
    down vote

    favorite












    Let L be modular lattice, M be lattice and $f:Lto M$ be a homomorphism. I want to show $f(L)$ is a modular lattice..



    We already know that homomorphic image of lattice is lattice.
    So we only want to show that if $f(a)leq f(b)$ then $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b))= (f(a)vee f(x))wedge f(b) $ for $a,b,x in L$



    Since L is modular $aleq b$ implies $a vee(xwedge b)= (avee x)wedge b$



    My problem is:



    I must begin with the assumption $f(a)leq f(b)$ then show $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b))= (f(a)vee f(x))wedge f(b) $ for which I need to use $a vee(xwedge b)= (avee x)wedge b$



    But $f(a)leq f(b)$ need not necessarily imply $aleq b$ since it is only homomorphism and not isomorphism.










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite











      Let L be modular lattice, M be lattice and $f:Lto M$ be a homomorphism. I want to show $f(L)$ is a modular lattice..



      We already know that homomorphic image of lattice is lattice.
      So we only want to show that if $f(a)leq f(b)$ then $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b))= (f(a)vee f(x))wedge f(b) $ for $a,b,x in L$



      Since L is modular $aleq b$ implies $a vee(xwedge b)= (avee x)wedge b$



      My problem is:



      I must begin with the assumption $f(a)leq f(b)$ then show $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b))= (f(a)vee f(x))wedge f(b) $ for which I need to use $a vee(xwedge b)= (avee x)wedge b$



      But $f(a)leq f(b)$ need not necessarily imply $aleq b$ since it is only homomorphism and not isomorphism.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let L be modular lattice, M be lattice and $f:Lto M$ be a homomorphism. I want to show $f(L)$ is a modular lattice..



      We already know that homomorphic image of lattice is lattice.
      So we only want to show that if $f(a)leq f(b)$ then $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b))= (f(a)vee f(x))wedge f(b) $ for $a,b,x in L$



      Since L is modular $aleq b$ implies $a vee(xwedge b)= (avee x)wedge b$



      My problem is:



      I must begin with the assumption $f(a)leq f(b)$ then show $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b))= (f(a)vee f(x))wedge f(b) $ for which I need to use $a vee(xwedge b)= (avee x)wedge b$



      But $f(a)leq f(b)$ need not necessarily imply $aleq b$ since it is only homomorphism and not isomorphism.







      discrete-mathematics






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      asked 4 hours ago









      So Lo

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          2 Answers
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          A lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular law:
          $$ale bimplies alor(xland b)=(alor x)land b.tag1$$
          Equivalently, a lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular identity:
          $$(cland b)lor(xland b)=[(cland b)lor x)land b.tag2$$
          Although $(1)$ and $(2)$ and not equivalent in isolation, they are equivalent in the presence of the other axioms of lattice theory; namely, their equivalence follows from the fact that, in a lattice, $ale b$ if and only if $a=cland b$ for some $c$.



          Now, since $(2)$ is an identity, it is preserved by homomorphisms; therefore, a homomorphic image of a modular lattice is a modular lattice.



          P.S. Here is a straightforward presentation which avoids mentioning the "modular identity":



          Given $a,b,xin L$ with $f(a)le f(b)$, we want to show that
          $$f(a)lor(f(x)land f(b))=(f(a)lor f(x))land f(b).tag3$$
          We don't know if $ale b$, so let $a_0=aland b$. Then $a_0le b$, so by the modular law we have
          $$a_0lor(xland b)=(a_0lor x)land b.tag4$$
          Moreover, $f(a_0)=f(aland b)=f(a)land f(b)=f(b)$ since $f(a)le f(b)$. Since $f$ is a homomorphism, and since $f(a_0)=f(a)$, we see that $(3)$ follows from $(4)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • thanks. But my textbook gave only the first definition. So is it possible to show it using that? If not, it is fine too.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago






          • 1




            Yes, of course. Since your textbook gives only the first definition, you need to include the proofs of (1) implies (2) and (2) implies (1) as part of your solution.
            – bof
            2 hours ago










          • @SoLo I edited my answer to include a simple direct argument, which does not mention any alternative definition of modular lattices.
            – bof
            2 hours ago

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You can instead replace $b$ with $avee b$, since $f(avee b) =f(a) vee f(b) =f(b) $.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • I don't understand this. Can you explain.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Your issue was that it may not be the case that $aleq b$. But $aleq avee b$ and $f(avee b)=f(b) $.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago










          • Yes but I don't get to use it anywhere. $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b)) = f(a)vee(f(xwedge b)) = f(avee(xwedge b))$ need not imply $f((avee x)wedge b)$
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Everywhere you see $b$, replace it with $avee b$. As far as $f$ is concerned, they're identical, so if you need $aleq b$, replace $b$ with $avee b$.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago










          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          A lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular law:
          $$ale bimplies alor(xland b)=(alor x)land b.tag1$$
          Equivalently, a lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular identity:
          $$(cland b)lor(xland b)=[(cland b)lor x)land b.tag2$$
          Although $(1)$ and $(2)$ and not equivalent in isolation, they are equivalent in the presence of the other axioms of lattice theory; namely, their equivalence follows from the fact that, in a lattice, $ale b$ if and only if $a=cland b$ for some $c$.



          Now, since $(2)$ is an identity, it is preserved by homomorphisms; therefore, a homomorphic image of a modular lattice is a modular lattice.



          P.S. Here is a straightforward presentation which avoids mentioning the "modular identity":



          Given $a,b,xin L$ with $f(a)le f(b)$, we want to show that
          $$f(a)lor(f(x)land f(b))=(f(a)lor f(x))land f(b).tag3$$
          We don't know if $ale b$, so let $a_0=aland b$. Then $a_0le b$, so by the modular law we have
          $$a_0lor(xland b)=(a_0lor x)land b.tag4$$
          Moreover, $f(a_0)=f(aland b)=f(a)land f(b)=f(b)$ since $f(a)le f(b)$. Since $f$ is a homomorphism, and since $f(a_0)=f(a)$, we see that $(3)$ follows from $(4)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • thanks. But my textbook gave only the first definition. So is it possible to show it using that? If not, it is fine too.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago






          • 1




            Yes, of course. Since your textbook gives only the first definition, you need to include the proofs of (1) implies (2) and (2) implies (1) as part of your solution.
            – bof
            2 hours ago










          • @SoLo I edited my answer to include a simple direct argument, which does not mention any alternative definition of modular lattices.
            – bof
            2 hours ago














          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          A lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular law:
          $$ale bimplies alor(xland b)=(alor x)land b.tag1$$
          Equivalently, a lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular identity:
          $$(cland b)lor(xland b)=[(cland b)lor x)land b.tag2$$
          Although $(1)$ and $(2)$ and not equivalent in isolation, they are equivalent in the presence of the other axioms of lattice theory; namely, their equivalence follows from the fact that, in a lattice, $ale b$ if and only if $a=cland b$ for some $c$.



          Now, since $(2)$ is an identity, it is preserved by homomorphisms; therefore, a homomorphic image of a modular lattice is a modular lattice.



          P.S. Here is a straightforward presentation which avoids mentioning the "modular identity":



          Given $a,b,xin L$ with $f(a)le f(b)$, we want to show that
          $$f(a)lor(f(x)land f(b))=(f(a)lor f(x))land f(b).tag3$$
          We don't know if $ale b$, so let $a_0=aland b$. Then $a_0le b$, so by the modular law we have
          $$a_0lor(xland b)=(a_0lor x)land b.tag4$$
          Moreover, $f(a_0)=f(aland b)=f(a)land f(b)=f(b)$ since $f(a)le f(b)$. Since $f$ is a homomorphism, and since $f(a_0)=f(a)$, we see that $(3)$ follows from $(4)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • thanks. But my textbook gave only the first definition. So is it possible to show it using that? If not, it is fine too.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago






          • 1




            Yes, of course. Since your textbook gives only the first definition, you need to include the proofs of (1) implies (2) and (2) implies (1) as part of your solution.
            – bof
            2 hours ago










          • @SoLo I edited my answer to include a simple direct argument, which does not mention any alternative definition of modular lattices.
            – bof
            2 hours ago












          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          A lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular law:
          $$ale bimplies alor(xland b)=(alor x)land b.tag1$$
          Equivalently, a lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular identity:
          $$(cland b)lor(xland b)=[(cland b)lor x)land b.tag2$$
          Although $(1)$ and $(2)$ and not equivalent in isolation, they are equivalent in the presence of the other axioms of lattice theory; namely, their equivalence follows from the fact that, in a lattice, $ale b$ if and only if $a=cland b$ for some $c$.



          Now, since $(2)$ is an identity, it is preserved by homomorphisms; therefore, a homomorphic image of a modular lattice is a modular lattice.



          P.S. Here is a straightforward presentation which avoids mentioning the "modular identity":



          Given $a,b,xin L$ with $f(a)le f(b)$, we want to show that
          $$f(a)lor(f(x)land f(b))=(f(a)lor f(x))land f(b).tag3$$
          We don't know if $ale b$, so let $a_0=aland b$. Then $a_0le b$, so by the modular law we have
          $$a_0lor(xland b)=(a_0lor x)land b.tag4$$
          Moreover, $f(a_0)=f(aland b)=f(a)land f(b)=f(b)$ since $f(a)le f(b)$. Since $f$ is a homomorphism, and since $f(a_0)=f(a)$, we see that $(3)$ follows from $(4)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          A lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular law:
          $$ale bimplies alor(xland b)=(alor x)land b.tag1$$
          Equivalently, a lattice is modular if and only if it satisfies the modular identity:
          $$(cland b)lor(xland b)=[(cland b)lor x)land b.tag2$$
          Although $(1)$ and $(2)$ and not equivalent in isolation, they are equivalent in the presence of the other axioms of lattice theory; namely, their equivalence follows from the fact that, in a lattice, $ale b$ if and only if $a=cland b$ for some $c$.



          Now, since $(2)$ is an identity, it is preserved by homomorphisms; therefore, a homomorphic image of a modular lattice is a modular lattice.



          P.S. Here is a straightforward presentation which avoids mentioning the "modular identity":



          Given $a,b,xin L$ with $f(a)le f(b)$, we want to show that
          $$f(a)lor(f(x)land f(b))=(f(a)lor f(x))land f(b).tag3$$
          We don't know if $ale b$, so let $a_0=aland b$. Then $a_0le b$, so by the modular law we have
          $$a_0lor(xland b)=(a_0lor x)land b.tag4$$
          Moreover, $f(a_0)=f(aland b)=f(a)land f(b)=f(b)$ since $f(a)le f(b)$. Since $f$ is a homomorphism, and since $f(a_0)=f(a)$, we see that $(3)$ follows from $(4)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 2 hours ago

























          answered 3 hours ago









          bof

          48.1k449114




          48.1k449114











          • thanks. But my textbook gave only the first definition. So is it possible to show it using that? If not, it is fine too.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago






          • 1




            Yes, of course. Since your textbook gives only the first definition, you need to include the proofs of (1) implies (2) and (2) implies (1) as part of your solution.
            – bof
            2 hours ago










          • @SoLo I edited my answer to include a simple direct argument, which does not mention any alternative definition of modular lattices.
            – bof
            2 hours ago
















          • thanks. But my textbook gave only the first definition. So is it possible to show it using that? If not, it is fine too.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago






          • 1




            Yes, of course. Since your textbook gives only the first definition, you need to include the proofs of (1) implies (2) and (2) implies (1) as part of your solution.
            – bof
            2 hours ago










          • @SoLo I edited my answer to include a simple direct argument, which does not mention any alternative definition of modular lattices.
            – bof
            2 hours ago















          thanks. But my textbook gave only the first definition. So is it possible to show it using that? If not, it is fine too.
          – So Lo
          3 hours ago




          thanks. But my textbook gave only the first definition. So is it possible to show it using that? If not, it is fine too.
          – So Lo
          3 hours ago




          1




          1




          Yes, of course. Since your textbook gives only the first definition, you need to include the proofs of (1) implies (2) and (2) implies (1) as part of your solution.
          – bof
          2 hours ago




          Yes, of course. Since your textbook gives only the first definition, you need to include the proofs of (1) implies (2) and (2) implies (1) as part of your solution.
          – bof
          2 hours ago












          @SoLo I edited my answer to include a simple direct argument, which does not mention any alternative definition of modular lattices.
          – bof
          2 hours ago




          @SoLo I edited my answer to include a simple direct argument, which does not mention any alternative definition of modular lattices.
          – bof
          2 hours ago










          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You can instead replace $b$ with $avee b$, since $f(avee b) =f(a) vee f(b) =f(b) $.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • I don't understand this. Can you explain.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Your issue was that it may not be the case that $aleq b$. But $aleq avee b$ and $f(avee b)=f(b) $.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago










          • Yes but I don't get to use it anywhere. $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b)) = f(a)vee(f(xwedge b)) = f(avee(xwedge b))$ need not imply $f((avee x)wedge b)$
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Everywhere you see $b$, replace it with $avee b$. As far as $f$ is concerned, they're identical, so if you need $aleq b$, replace $b$ with $avee b$.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago














          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You can instead replace $b$ with $avee b$, since $f(avee b) =f(a) vee f(b) =f(b) $.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • I don't understand this. Can you explain.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Your issue was that it may not be the case that $aleq b$. But $aleq avee b$ and $f(avee b)=f(b) $.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago










          • Yes but I don't get to use it anywhere. $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b)) = f(a)vee(f(xwedge b)) = f(avee(xwedge b))$ need not imply $f((avee x)wedge b)$
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Everywhere you see $b$, replace it with $avee b$. As far as $f$ is concerned, they're identical, so if you need $aleq b$, replace $b$ with $avee b$.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago












          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          You can instead replace $b$ with $avee b$, since $f(avee b) =f(a) vee f(b) =f(b) $.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          You can instead replace $b$ with $avee b$, since $f(avee b) =f(a) vee f(b) =f(b) $.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 4 hours ago









          Matt Samuel

          35.9k63462




          35.9k63462











          • I don't understand this. Can you explain.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Your issue was that it may not be the case that $aleq b$. But $aleq avee b$ and $f(avee b)=f(b) $.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago










          • Yes but I don't get to use it anywhere. $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b)) = f(a)vee(f(xwedge b)) = f(avee(xwedge b))$ need not imply $f((avee x)wedge b)$
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Everywhere you see $b$, replace it with $avee b$. As far as $f$ is concerned, they're identical, so if you need $aleq b$, replace $b$ with $avee b$.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago
















          • I don't understand this. Can you explain.
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Your issue was that it may not be the case that $aleq b$. But $aleq avee b$ and $f(avee b)=f(b) $.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago










          • Yes but I don't get to use it anywhere. $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b)) = f(a)vee(f(xwedge b)) = f(avee(xwedge b))$ need not imply $f((avee x)wedge b)$
            – So Lo
            3 hours ago










          • @So Everywhere you see $b$, replace it with $avee b$. As far as $f$ is concerned, they're identical, so if you need $aleq b$, replace $b$ with $avee b$.
            – Matt Samuel
            3 hours ago















          I don't understand this. Can you explain.
          – So Lo
          3 hours ago




          I don't understand this. Can you explain.
          – So Lo
          3 hours ago












          @So Your issue was that it may not be the case that $aleq b$. But $aleq avee b$ and $f(avee b)=f(b) $.
          – Matt Samuel
          3 hours ago




          @So Your issue was that it may not be the case that $aleq b$. But $aleq avee b$ and $f(avee b)=f(b) $.
          – Matt Samuel
          3 hours ago












          Yes but I don't get to use it anywhere. $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b)) = f(a)vee(f(xwedge b)) = f(avee(xwedge b))$ need not imply $f((avee x)wedge b)$
          – So Lo
          3 hours ago




          Yes but I don't get to use it anywhere. $f(a) vee (f(x)wedge f(b)) = f(a)vee(f(xwedge b)) = f(avee(xwedge b))$ need not imply $f((avee x)wedge b)$
          – So Lo
          3 hours ago












          @So Everywhere you see $b$, replace it with $avee b$. As far as $f$ is concerned, they're identical, so if you need $aleq b$, replace $b$ with $avee b$.
          – Matt Samuel
          3 hours ago




          @So Everywhere you see $b$, replace it with $avee b$. As far as $f$ is concerned, they're identical, so if you need $aleq b$, replace $b$ with $avee b$.
          – Matt Samuel
          3 hours ago

















           

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