Simple way of explaining the empty product [duplicate]
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Numbers to the Power of Zero
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I understand that $$3^2=9 text because 3times3=9$$
But is it possible to explain in same simple terms how $3^0=1$?
exponential-function arithmetic
marked as duplicate by Xander Henderson, Holo, Rushabh Mehta, Alex Francisco, Lord Shark the Unknown 3 hours ago
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up vote
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This question already has an answer here:
Numbers to the Power of Zero
8 answers
I understand that $$3^2=9 text because 3times3=9$$
But is it possible to explain in same simple terms how $3^0=1$?
exponential-function arithmetic
marked as duplicate by Xander Henderson, Holo, Rushabh Mehta, Alex Francisco, Lord Shark the Unknown 3 hours ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
2
It is a mathematical operation: we define it so in order to be consistent with the "usual" properties of raising to power: in "real life" there is no "3 raised to the power of 0".
â Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Oct 4 at 14:30
23
3^0 =3^(1-1)=3/3=1
â Avinash N
Oct 4 at 17:46
k^x = 1 * k * ...* k (x times) +> when x is 0 only remains 1 ==> k^0 = 1
â asmgx
Oct 5 at 2:23
1
Also of: math.stackexchange.com/questions/454670/â¦
â Holo
7 hours ago
1
See also Why is $ large 2^0 = 1 $?
â Bill Dubuque
7 hours ago
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up vote
21
down vote
favorite
up vote
21
down vote
favorite
This question already has an answer here:
Numbers to the Power of Zero
8 answers
I understand that $$3^2=9 text because 3times3=9$$
But is it possible to explain in same simple terms how $3^0=1$?
exponential-function arithmetic
This question already has an answer here:
Numbers to the Power of Zero
8 answers
I understand that $$3^2=9 text because 3times3=9$$
But is it possible to explain in same simple terms how $3^0=1$?
This question already has an answer here:
Numbers to the Power of Zero
8 answers
exponential-function arithmetic
exponential-function arithmetic
edited Oct 5 at 6:30
Periodic Sqare well
1427
1427
asked Oct 4 at 13:27
brilliant
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28329
marked as duplicate by Xander Henderson, Holo, Rushabh Mehta, Alex Francisco, Lord Shark the Unknown 3 hours ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
marked as duplicate by Xander Henderson, Holo, Rushabh Mehta, Alex Francisco, Lord Shark the Unknown 3 hours ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
2
It is a mathematical operation: we define it so in order to be consistent with the "usual" properties of raising to power: in "real life" there is no "3 raised to the power of 0".
â Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Oct 4 at 14:30
23
3^0 =3^(1-1)=3/3=1
â Avinash N
Oct 4 at 17:46
k^x = 1 * k * ...* k (x times) +> when x is 0 only remains 1 ==> k^0 = 1
â asmgx
Oct 5 at 2:23
1
Also of: math.stackexchange.com/questions/454670/â¦
â Holo
7 hours ago
1
See also Why is $ large 2^0 = 1 $?
â Bill Dubuque
7 hours ago
add a comment |Â
2
It is a mathematical operation: we define it so in order to be consistent with the "usual" properties of raising to power: in "real life" there is no "3 raised to the power of 0".
â Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Oct 4 at 14:30
23
3^0 =3^(1-1)=3/3=1
â Avinash N
Oct 4 at 17:46
k^x = 1 * k * ...* k (x times) +> when x is 0 only remains 1 ==> k^0 = 1
â asmgx
Oct 5 at 2:23
1
Also of: math.stackexchange.com/questions/454670/â¦
â Holo
7 hours ago
1
See also Why is $ large 2^0 = 1 $?
â Bill Dubuque
7 hours ago
2
2
It is a mathematical operation: we define it so in order to be consistent with the "usual" properties of raising to power: in "real life" there is no "3 raised to the power of 0".
â Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Oct 4 at 14:30
It is a mathematical operation: we define it so in order to be consistent with the "usual" properties of raising to power: in "real life" there is no "3 raised to the power of 0".
â Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Oct 4 at 14:30
23
23
3^0 =3^(1-1)=3/3=1
â Avinash N
Oct 4 at 17:46
3^0 =3^(1-1)=3/3=1
â Avinash N
Oct 4 at 17:46
k^x = 1 * k * ...* k (x times) +> when x is 0 only remains 1 ==> k^0 = 1
â asmgx
Oct 5 at 2:23
k^x = 1 * k * ...* k (x times) +> when x is 0 only remains 1 ==> k^0 = 1
â asmgx
Oct 5 at 2:23
1
1
Also of: math.stackexchange.com/questions/454670/â¦
â Holo
7 hours ago
Also of: math.stackexchange.com/questions/454670/â¦
â Holo
7 hours ago
1
1
See also Why is $ large 2^0 = 1 $?
â Bill Dubuque
7 hours ago
See also Why is $ large 2^0 = 1 $?
â Bill Dubuque
7 hours ago
add a comment |Â
15 Answers
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$x^0$ doesn't mean anything before we define what it means. We can define it to mean anything, but we usually want to define things so that they make sense.
We start by defining $x^k$ as $underbracexcdot x cdots x_ktext times$ because it's a useful way of writing the product.
Using this definition, we can notice the following interesting property:
For any pair of integers $k_1, k_2$ such that $k_1 > k_2$ and any positive real number $xin mathbb R$ we have $$fracx^k_1x^k_2 = x^k_1-k_2$$
Now, we like this property. We want this property be true for other pairs of $k_1, k_2$. In order for this rule to also be true if $k_1=k_2$, we have to define $x^0=1$, so that's what we define it as. We do it because it's useful.
5
If we redefine x<sup>k</sup> to be the multiplicative identity (1) multiplied by x, k times, then when k=0, we don't multiply at all. Many people use sloppy language and say x<sup>k</sup> is "x multiplied by itself k times", but that would make 3<sup>2</sup>=3x3x3 (3 multiplied by 3 twice) rather than 3x3.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:38
1
Important: $x$ must not be zero
â Barranka
Oct 5 at 1:04
3
@HRSE I agree with $0^0=1(=exp(0))$ but not on base of what you mention. The middle expression is not defined because $ln(0)$ is not defined. IMV $0^0$ is an empty product (just like $3^0$) hence is a neutral element in multiplication.
â Vera
2 days ago
1
For a slightly simpler version, I'd go with "for any pair of positive integers $k_1$ and $k_2$, $x^k_1 cdot x^k_2 = x^k_1+k_2$, so if we extend it to $0$, $x^k = x^k+0 = x^k cdot x^0$ forces $1 = x^0$".
â Pablo H
2 days ago
2
This is not the place to "discuss" $0^0$. math.stackexchange.com/questions/11150/â¦
â user202729
2 days ago
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$$3=3^1=3^1+0=3^1times3^0=3times3^0$$implying that $3^0=1$.
1
âÂÂimplyingâ is a bit strong here, else what about nonsense like âÂÂ$-1 = (-1)^tfrac12times(-1)^tfrac12 =$ product of two square roots, square roots are always positive $Longrightarrow$ $-1$ is positiveâÂÂ?
â leftaroundabout
Oct 4 at 23:42
3
It's nonsense because $x^1/2$ is not the same thing as $sqrtx$ in the first place, and then because the square root of -1 is $i$, which doesn't follow the ordering of negative/positive at all.
â Nij
Oct 4 at 23:56
2
How is $x^1/2$ not the same as $sqrtx$?
â GraphicsMuncher
2 days ago
@leftaroundabout That's nonsense, but not because of Vera's property. It's nonsense because the middle claim, namely "square roots are always positive", is simply false; in the reals because square roots don't always exist and in the complex plane because non-reals aren't positive and are frequently square roots.
â Daniel Wagner
yesterday
1
@DanielWagner my example wasn't particularly well thought through, but the point was that you can't, in general, just toss around calculation rules outside of the domain they were originally defined in, and then use the âÂÂresultsâ to prove that such and such previously undefined expression must have a certain value. You can use that as the motivation for extending the definition, but the proof that it's actually consistent needs to be done separately.
â leftaroundabout
yesterday
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23
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5xum answer is the correct one, but I'll try to give you a more intuitive way to get $x^0 = 1$
We have
$$x^k = underbracextimes x cdots x_ktext times=1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_ktext times$$
Therefore
$$x^0 = 1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_0text times = 1 $$
2
This is actually a superior way to define exponentation. Start with the multiplicative identity (1) and multiply by x, k times. If k is zero, there are no multiplications by x.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:34
6
I would not call this more intuitive. In fact, it is not intuitive at all that you want to multiply by 1 in the definition. You only realize this is useful after you've gone through the reasoning summarized in 5xum's post.
â Paul Sinclair
Oct 4 at 16:30
In my intermediate algebra classes I define $x^0 = 1$, and for natural $n$, $x^n = 1 cdot x cdot x...$ [$n$ times], and $x^-n = 1 div x div x...$ [$n$ times]. So the symmetry of each one starting with $1$ seems pretty intuitive. Also there are actually $n$ operations (see elsewhere comment by @MontyHarder).
â Daniel R. Collins
Oct 4 at 18:08
3
Couldn't you just as easily say that $x^k = x times x cdots x = 0 + x times x cdots x$, so $x^0 = 0$?
â Arcanist Lupus
Oct 5 at 1:00
2
@ArcanistLupus Well, never thought about it this way. I think that it doesn't really make sense to use the additive identity (0+a=a) for exponentation, since the usual formula is all about multiplicating. But you're right that it's a flaw in my reasoning, thanks for pointing it out!
â F.Carette
2 days ago
 |Â
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12
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The value of the empty product really is a consequence of the associative property of multiplication: To see this, consider the following: For any nonempty, finite set $A$ of numbers, let's define $$displaystyle prod_a in A a$$ as the product of all numbers in $A$. Note that $A$ really needs to be nonempty (at least for now), otherwise this definition doesn't make any sense. Then, if we have another disjoint set $B$, the product of all numbers in $Acup B$ will be $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right).$$ For example let's take the two sets $M:=x,y$ and $N:=z$. Then $Mcup N = x,y,z$, and by the associative law $$displaystyle prod_p in M cup Np = x*y*z=(x*y)*(z)= left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_n in N n right).$$ Now, let's try to extend this notation to the empty set $$. What should $displaystyle prod_x in x$ be? If we want to keep the rule $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right),$$ then there is only one natural choice: Since for any set $M$ we have $M = M cup $, it follows that $$displaystyle prod_m in M m = displaystyle prod_x in M cup x = left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_x in x right).$$ For this to hold the empty product $displaystyle prod_x in x$ has to be equal to the multiplicative identity, $1$. By the same argument, the empty sum is equal to the additive identity, $0$.
4
This product notation probably works nicer if you use multisets instead of sets. Then there are no worries about disjointness.
â Joonas Ilmavirta
2 days ago
1
...or disjoint union, $sqcup$.
â AccidentalFourierTransform
2 days ago
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To increase power by one, multiply by 3, for example $3^2times3=3^3$. To decrease power by one, divide by 3, for example $3^2div3=3^1$. If you repeat this, you get $3^1div3=3^0$.
You can see it this way:
$$3^3=3times3times3$$
$$3^2=3times3$$
$$3^1=3$$
$$3^0=3div3$$
$$3^-1=3div3div3$$
New contributor
1
+1; I've successfully explained this to ten year olds by making such a diagram. They didn't have any trouble with it. Good simple answer.
â Wildcard
2 days ago
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Another way to look at the quantity $a^b$, with $a$ and $b$ non-negative integers, is as the number of mappings (functions) that exist from a set with $b$ elements (henceforth $B$) to a set with $a$ elements (henceforth $A$).
Recall further that a mapping from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is a set $M$ of pairs $(x,y)$ where
- for all $(x,y) in M$, $x in X$ and $y in y$; and
- for all $x in X$, there is exactly one $y in Y$ such that $(x,y) in M$.
Now, if $B$ has zero elements (i.e., if it is the empty set $emptyset$), it is clear that there exists exactly one $M$ that satisfies the two conditions above, namely $M = emptyset$.
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Not the simplest answer, but a way to think about this and related questions about combining a bunch of things.
If you have a list of numbers and you want to write a computer program to sum them you do something like
sum = 0
while there are unsummed numbers in the list
sum = sum + next number
Then the sum
variable contains the answer. If the list is empty the while
loop never does anything and the sum
is $0$.
For multiplication you want
product = 1
while there are unmultiplied numbers in the list
product = product * next number
That clearly gives the correct answer when the list is not empty and tells you what the answer should be for an empty list.
This same strategy (called "accumulation") works for combining values whenever you have an associative combiner.
answer = identity element for operation
while there are unused objects in the list
answer= answer (operator) next object
For example, you can use this pattern to find the union of a set of sets, starting with the empty set, or the intersection of a set of sets, starting with the universe of discourse.
This way the definition for $x^k$ is also simpler. Compare $x^k = 1cdot underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$ with effectively only one base case ($k$ = 0) to the alternative: $x^0 = 1$, $x^k = underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$. Here we have effectively two base cases ($k = 0, 1$).
â ComFreek
2 days ago
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A definition of powers of natural numbers that is based on maps between finite sets can be formulated in real world terms of fruit and people.
Say you have an amount $b$ of fruit, each of a different kind.
- For example an orange and a pear, which means $b = 2$.
Now say there are $a$ persons between whom you can distribute the fruit.
- E.g. Alice, Bob and Carol, for $a = 3$. (No, you can't take fruit for yourself.)
The power $a^b$ is the number of possibilities that you have for distributing the fruit between them.
You could write up all the different possibilities, and find that there are $9$ of them:
- Alice: orange, pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: Nothing. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: orange. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange, pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: pear. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange, pear.
Of course, you could have found that result by observing that you have $3$ choices for whom to give the orange, and then for each of those choices $3$ more for the $pear$, giving a total of $3 cdot 3 = 9$ possibilities. Either way, we conclude $3^2 = 9$.
Now for the actual questions:
You don't have any fruit, and there are three people that are ready to be given fruit.
Everybody doesn't get a fruit:
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
And this is the only one possibility that you have. Thus $3^0 = 1$.
While you only have only one option in this case, it is still a valid assignment of $0$ fruits to $3$ people.
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3
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depends in who you need to explain this to,
if beginners for abstract algebra then this may work
$x^k = 1 ÃÂ k ÃÂ ... ÃÂ k $ (x times)
Therefore
When the power = 0 the k will not be repeated at all
$ x^0 = 1 $
New contributor
1
How is this different from math.stackexchange.com/a/2942188/78700?
â chepner
2 days ago
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I suppose one explanation is that $1$ is the multiplicative identity, similar to how $0$ is the additive identity. $3 times 0 = 0$. That is, starting with the additive identity, if you add the number $3$ to it zero times, you will get $0$.
$3^0 = 1$. That is, starting with the multiplicative identity, if you multiply it by $3$ zero times, you will get $1$.
Could this explanation be understood by someone who doesn't understand additive identities and multiplicative identities? If not, then you should start by explaining those concepts.
$0$ is the additive identity because if you add $0$ to anything, you get that number back. $1$ is the multiplicative identity because if you multiply anything by it, you get that number back.
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One intuitive way to define an empty product is as a product of 0 terms. Technically, by that definition, there is no such thing as the empty product because there are 0 ways to bracket a sequence of 0 terms, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 1 term, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 2 terms, and 2 ways to bracket a sequence of 3 terms. We could solve that problem by defining another meaning for the term "empty product." Since multiplication is associative, we can write a string of numbers with the multiplication symbol without brackets to denote multiplication of all of them. Since 1 is the multiplicative identity, sticking a 1 $times$ at the beginning of the expression gives the same result. We could define this to be another notation for the product of all the numbers in the original expression not counting the one and say that $timestext[2][3]$ is another way of saying 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3. This notation can also be extended to o terms so we can call that the empty product and calculate that $timestext[2][3]$ = 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3 = 6 and the empty product is $timestext$ = 1 = 1.
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Since $a^n=1iff nln a=ln 1=0$ so either $n=0$ or $ln a = 0$. In this case, $ln3>0$ so the result follows.
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The idea is to extend exponents allowing also $0$ and $1$, but maintaining the property
$$
x^m+n=x^mx^n
$$
Note that also $x^1$ is problematic, because it is not a product to begin with.
Well, for $x^1$, we want $x^2=x^1x^1$, but also $x^3=x^1x^2$ and we see that defining $x^1=x$ is what we need.
Next we have $0+2=2$, so we need
$$
x^2=x^0x^2
$$
and the only way to make it work is defining $x^0=1$.
At least when $xne0$, but then, why make differences?
Next we can check that the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ is indeed preserved with this definition.
Actually, this paves the way for a rigorous definition of powers with nonnegative integer exponents, namely
$$
x^0=1, qquad x^n+1=x^nxquad (nge0)
$$
using recursion. This allows to prove the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ without âÂÂhandwavingâÂÂ, but with formal induction.
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If you multiply a number by 3 twice, then you get a number that is 9 times the original number. If you multiply a number by 3 no times, you get a number that is 1 times the original number. This also works for showing 3^1 = 3.
This might be more clear with prime factorization. For instance, compare the facorizations of 12 and 15. The factorization of 12 has two 2's, one 3, and no 5's. 15 has no 2's, one 3, and one 5.
You can also show it with blocks: a cube has 3^3 blocks, a square has 3^2 blocks, a line has 3 blocks, and a single block is 3^0=1.
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Below I explain in simple terms the (abstract) algebraic motivation behind the uniform extension of the power laws from positive powers to zero and negative powers. Most of the post is elementary, so if you encounter unfamiliar terms you can safely skip past them.
$a^m+n = a^m a^n, $ i.e. $p(m!+!n) = p(m)p(n),$ for $,p(k) = a^kin Bbb Rbackslash 0,$ shows that powers $,a^Bbb N_+$ under multiplication have the same algebraic (semigroup) structure as the positive naturals $Bbb N_+$ under addition. If we enlarge $Bbb N_+$ to a monoid $Bbb N$ or group $Bbb Z$ by adjoining a neutral element $0$ along with additive inverses (negative integers) then there is a unique way of extending this structure preserving (hom) power map, namely:
$$p(n) = p(0+n) = p(0)p(n) ,Rightarrow, p(0) = 1, rm i.e. a^0= 1$$
$$1 = p(0) = p(-n+n) = p(-n)p(n),Rightarrow, p(-n) = p(n)^-1, rm i.e. a^-n = (a^n)^-1$$
The fact that it proves very handy to use $0$ and negative integers when deducing facts about positive integers transfers to the isomorphic structure of powers $a^Bbb Z.,$ Because the power map on $,Bbb Z,$ is an extension of that on positive powers we are guaranteed that proofs about positive powers remain true even if the proof uses negative or zero powers, just as for proofs about positive integers that use negative integers and zero.
For example using negative integers allows us to concisely state Bezout's lemma for the gcd, i.e. that $,gcd(m,n) = j m + k n,$ for some integers $j,k$ (which may be negative). In particular if $S$ is a group of integers (i.e. closed under subtraction) and it contains two coprime positives then it contains their gcd $= 1$. When translated to the isomorphic power form this says that if a set of powers is closed under division and it contains powers $a^m, a^n$ for coprime $m,n$ then it contains $a^1 = a,,$ e.g. see here where $a^m, a^n$ are integer matrices with determinant $= 1$. However, if we are restricted to positive powers and cancellation (vs. division) then analogous proofs may become much more cumbersome, and the key algebraic structure may become highly obfuscated by the manipulations needed to keep all powers positive, e.g. see here on proving $,a^m = b^m, a^n = b^n,Rightarrow, a = b,$ for integers $a,b,,$ Such enlargments to richer structures with $0$ and inverses allows us to work with objects in simpler forms that better highlight fundamental algebraic structure (here cyclic groups or principal ideals)
This structure preservation principle is a key property that is employed when enlarging algebraic structures such as groups and rings. If the extended structure preserves the laws (axioms) of the base structure then everything we deduce about the base structure using the extended structure remains valid in the base structure. For example, to solve for integer or rational roots of quadratic and cubics we can employ well-known formulas. Even though these formula may employ complex numbers to solve for integer, rational or real roots, those result are valid in these base number systems because the proofs only employed (ring) axioms that remain valid in the base structures, e.g. associative, commutative, distributive laws. These single uniform formulas greatly simplify ancient methods where the quadratic and cubic formulas bifurcated into motley special cases to avoid untrusted "imaginary" or "negative" numbers, as well as (ab)surds (nowadays, using e.g. set-theoretic foundations, we know rigorous methods to construct such extended numbers systems in a way that proves they remain as consistent as the base number system). Further, as above, instead of appealing to ancient heuristics like the Hankel or Peacock Permanence Principle, we can use the axiomatic method to specify precisely what algebraic structure is preserved in extensions (e.g. the (semi)group structure underlying the power laws).
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$x^0$ doesn't mean anything before we define what it means. We can define it to mean anything, but we usually want to define things so that they make sense.
We start by defining $x^k$ as $underbracexcdot x cdots x_ktext times$ because it's a useful way of writing the product.
Using this definition, we can notice the following interesting property:
For any pair of integers $k_1, k_2$ such that $k_1 > k_2$ and any positive real number $xin mathbb R$ we have $$fracx^k_1x^k_2 = x^k_1-k_2$$
Now, we like this property. We want this property be true for other pairs of $k_1, k_2$. In order for this rule to also be true if $k_1=k_2$, we have to define $x^0=1$, so that's what we define it as. We do it because it's useful.
5
If we redefine x<sup>k</sup> to be the multiplicative identity (1) multiplied by x, k times, then when k=0, we don't multiply at all. Many people use sloppy language and say x<sup>k</sup> is "x multiplied by itself k times", but that would make 3<sup>2</sup>=3x3x3 (3 multiplied by 3 twice) rather than 3x3.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:38
1
Important: $x$ must not be zero
â Barranka
Oct 5 at 1:04
3
@HRSE I agree with $0^0=1(=exp(0))$ but not on base of what you mention. The middle expression is not defined because $ln(0)$ is not defined. IMV $0^0$ is an empty product (just like $3^0$) hence is a neutral element in multiplication.
â Vera
2 days ago
1
For a slightly simpler version, I'd go with "for any pair of positive integers $k_1$ and $k_2$, $x^k_1 cdot x^k_2 = x^k_1+k_2$, so if we extend it to $0$, $x^k = x^k+0 = x^k cdot x^0$ forces $1 = x^0$".
â Pablo H
2 days ago
2
This is not the place to "discuss" $0^0$. math.stackexchange.com/questions/11150/â¦
â user202729
2 days ago
 |Â
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up vote
66
down vote
accepted
$x^0$ doesn't mean anything before we define what it means. We can define it to mean anything, but we usually want to define things so that they make sense.
We start by defining $x^k$ as $underbracexcdot x cdots x_ktext times$ because it's a useful way of writing the product.
Using this definition, we can notice the following interesting property:
For any pair of integers $k_1, k_2$ such that $k_1 > k_2$ and any positive real number $xin mathbb R$ we have $$fracx^k_1x^k_2 = x^k_1-k_2$$
Now, we like this property. We want this property be true for other pairs of $k_1, k_2$. In order for this rule to also be true if $k_1=k_2$, we have to define $x^0=1$, so that's what we define it as. We do it because it's useful.
5
If we redefine x<sup>k</sup> to be the multiplicative identity (1) multiplied by x, k times, then when k=0, we don't multiply at all. Many people use sloppy language and say x<sup>k</sup> is "x multiplied by itself k times", but that would make 3<sup>2</sup>=3x3x3 (3 multiplied by 3 twice) rather than 3x3.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:38
1
Important: $x$ must not be zero
â Barranka
Oct 5 at 1:04
3
@HRSE I agree with $0^0=1(=exp(0))$ but not on base of what you mention. The middle expression is not defined because $ln(0)$ is not defined. IMV $0^0$ is an empty product (just like $3^0$) hence is a neutral element in multiplication.
â Vera
2 days ago
1
For a slightly simpler version, I'd go with "for any pair of positive integers $k_1$ and $k_2$, $x^k_1 cdot x^k_2 = x^k_1+k_2$, so if we extend it to $0$, $x^k = x^k+0 = x^k cdot x^0$ forces $1 = x^0$".
â Pablo H
2 days ago
2
This is not the place to "discuss" $0^0$. math.stackexchange.com/questions/11150/â¦
â user202729
2 days ago
 |Â
show 3 more comments
up vote
66
down vote
accepted
up vote
66
down vote
accepted
$x^0$ doesn't mean anything before we define what it means. We can define it to mean anything, but we usually want to define things so that they make sense.
We start by defining $x^k$ as $underbracexcdot x cdots x_ktext times$ because it's a useful way of writing the product.
Using this definition, we can notice the following interesting property:
For any pair of integers $k_1, k_2$ such that $k_1 > k_2$ and any positive real number $xin mathbb R$ we have $$fracx^k_1x^k_2 = x^k_1-k_2$$
Now, we like this property. We want this property be true for other pairs of $k_1, k_2$. In order for this rule to also be true if $k_1=k_2$, we have to define $x^0=1$, so that's what we define it as. We do it because it's useful.
$x^0$ doesn't mean anything before we define what it means. We can define it to mean anything, but we usually want to define things so that they make sense.
We start by defining $x^k$ as $underbracexcdot x cdots x_ktext times$ because it's a useful way of writing the product.
Using this definition, we can notice the following interesting property:
For any pair of integers $k_1, k_2$ such that $k_1 > k_2$ and any positive real number $xin mathbb R$ we have $$fracx^k_1x^k_2 = x^k_1-k_2$$
Now, we like this property. We want this property be true for other pairs of $k_1, k_2$. In order for this rule to also be true if $k_1=k_2$, we have to define $x^0=1$, so that's what we define it as. We do it because it's useful.
answered Oct 4 at 13:32
5xum
84.7k388153
84.7k388153
5
If we redefine x<sup>k</sup> to be the multiplicative identity (1) multiplied by x, k times, then when k=0, we don't multiply at all. Many people use sloppy language and say x<sup>k</sup> is "x multiplied by itself k times", but that would make 3<sup>2</sup>=3x3x3 (3 multiplied by 3 twice) rather than 3x3.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:38
1
Important: $x$ must not be zero
â Barranka
Oct 5 at 1:04
3
@HRSE I agree with $0^0=1(=exp(0))$ but not on base of what you mention. The middle expression is not defined because $ln(0)$ is not defined. IMV $0^0$ is an empty product (just like $3^0$) hence is a neutral element in multiplication.
â Vera
2 days ago
1
For a slightly simpler version, I'd go with "for any pair of positive integers $k_1$ and $k_2$, $x^k_1 cdot x^k_2 = x^k_1+k_2$, so if we extend it to $0$, $x^k = x^k+0 = x^k cdot x^0$ forces $1 = x^0$".
â Pablo H
2 days ago
2
This is not the place to "discuss" $0^0$. math.stackexchange.com/questions/11150/â¦
â user202729
2 days ago
 |Â
show 3 more comments
5
If we redefine x<sup>k</sup> to be the multiplicative identity (1) multiplied by x, k times, then when k=0, we don't multiply at all. Many people use sloppy language and say x<sup>k</sup> is "x multiplied by itself k times", but that would make 3<sup>2</sup>=3x3x3 (3 multiplied by 3 twice) rather than 3x3.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:38
1
Important: $x$ must not be zero
â Barranka
Oct 5 at 1:04
3
@HRSE I agree with $0^0=1(=exp(0))$ but not on base of what you mention. The middle expression is not defined because $ln(0)$ is not defined. IMV $0^0$ is an empty product (just like $3^0$) hence is a neutral element in multiplication.
â Vera
2 days ago
1
For a slightly simpler version, I'd go with "for any pair of positive integers $k_1$ and $k_2$, $x^k_1 cdot x^k_2 = x^k_1+k_2$, so if we extend it to $0$, $x^k = x^k+0 = x^k cdot x^0$ forces $1 = x^0$".
â Pablo H
2 days ago
2
This is not the place to "discuss" $0^0$. math.stackexchange.com/questions/11150/â¦
â user202729
2 days ago
5
5
If we redefine x<sup>k</sup> to be the multiplicative identity (1) multiplied by x, k times, then when k=0, we don't multiply at all. Many people use sloppy language and say x<sup>k</sup> is "x multiplied by itself k times", but that would make 3<sup>2</sup>=3x3x3 (3 multiplied by 3 twice) rather than 3x3.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:38
If we redefine x<sup>k</sup> to be the multiplicative identity (1) multiplied by x, k times, then when k=0, we don't multiply at all. Many people use sloppy language and say x<sup>k</sup> is "x multiplied by itself k times", but that would make 3<sup>2</sup>=3x3x3 (3 multiplied by 3 twice) rather than 3x3.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:38
1
1
Important: $x$ must not be zero
â Barranka
Oct 5 at 1:04
Important: $x$ must not be zero
â Barranka
Oct 5 at 1:04
3
3
@HRSE I agree with $0^0=1(=exp(0))$ but not on base of what you mention. The middle expression is not defined because $ln(0)$ is not defined. IMV $0^0$ is an empty product (just like $3^0$) hence is a neutral element in multiplication.
â Vera
2 days ago
@HRSE I agree with $0^0=1(=exp(0))$ but not on base of what you mention. The middle expression is not defined because $ln(0)$ is not defined. IMV $0^0$ is an empty product (just like $3^0$) hence is a neutral element in multiplication.
â Vera
2 days ago
1
1
For a slightly simpler version, I'd go with "for any pair of positive integers $k_1$ and $k_2$, $x^k_1 cdot x^k_2 = x^k_1+k_2$, so if we extend it to $0$, $x^k = x^k+0 = x^k cdot x^0$ forces $1 = x^0$".
â Pablo H
2 days ago
For a slightly simpler version, I'd go with "for any pair of positive integers $k_1$ and $k_2$, $x^k_1 cdot x^k_2 = x^k_1+k_2$, so if we extend it to $0$, $x^k = x^k+0 = x^k cdot x^0$ forces $1 = x^0$".
â Pablo H
2 days ago
2
2
This is not the place to "discuss" $0^0$. math.stackexchange.com/questions/11150/â¦
â user202729
2 days ago
This is not the place to "discuss" $0^0$. math.stackexchange.com/questions/11150/â¦
â user202729
2 days ago
 |Â
show 3 more comments
up vote
33
down vote
$$3=3^1=3^1+0=3^1times3^0=3times3^0$$implying that $3^0=1$.
1
âÂÂimplyingâ is a bit strong here, else what about nonsense like âÂÂ$-1 = (-1)^tfrac12times(-1)^tfrac12 =$ product of two square roots, square roots are always positive $Longrightarrow$ $-1$ is positiveâÂÂ?
â leftaroundabout
Oct 4 at 23:42
3
It's nonsense because $x^1/2$ is not the same thing as $sqrtx$ in the first place, and then because the square root of -1 is $i$, which doesn't follow the ordering of negative/positive at all.
â Nij
Oct 4 at 23:56
2
How is $x^1/2$ not the same as $sqrtx$?
â GraphicsMuncher
2 days ago
@leftaroundabout That's nonsense, but not because of Vera's property. It's nonsense because the middle claim, namely "square roots are always positive", is simply false; in the reals because square roots don't always exist and in the complex plane because non-reals aren't positive and are frequently square roots.
â Daniel Wagner
yesterday
1
@DanielWagner my example wasn't particularly well thought through, but the point was that you can't, in general, just toss around calculation rules outside of the domain they were originally defined in, and then use the âÂÂresultsâ to prove that such and such previously undefined expression must have a certain value. You can use that as the motivation for extending the definition, but the proof that it's actually consistent needs to be done separately.
â leftaroundabout
yesterday
add a comment |Â
up vote
33
down vote
$$3=3^1=3^1+0=3^1times3^0=3times3^0$$implying that $3^0=1$.
1
âÂÂimplyingâ is a bit strong here, else what about nonsense like âÂÂ$-1 = (-1)^tfrac12times(-1)^tfrac12 =$ product of two square roots, square roots are always positive $Longrightarrow$ $-1$ is positiveâÂÂ?
â leftaroundabout
Oct 4 at 23:42
3
It's nonsense because $x^1/2$ is not the same thing as $sqrtx$ in the first place, and then because the square root of -1 is $i$, which doesn't follow the ordering of negative/positive at all.
â Nij
Oct 4 at 23:56
2
How is $x^1/2$ not the same as $sqrtx$?
â GraphicsMuncher
2 days ago
@leftaroundabout That's nonsense, but not because of Vera's property. It's nonsense because the middle claim, namely "square roots are always positive", is simply false; in the reals because square roots don't always exist and in the complex plane because non-reals aren't positive and are frequently square roots.
â Daniel Wagner
yesterday
1
@DanielWagner my example wasn't particularly well thought through, but the point was that you can't, in general, just toss around calculation rules outside of the domain they were originally defined in, and then use the âÂÂresultsâ to prove that such and such previously undefined expression must have a certain value. You can use that as the motivation for extending the definition, but the proof that it's actually consistent needs to be done separately.
â leftaroundabout
yesterday
add a comment |Â
up vote
33
down vote
up vote
33
down vote
$$3=3^1=3^1+0=3^1times3^0=3times3^0$$implying that $3^0=1$.
$$3=3^1=3^1+0=3^1times3^0=3times3^0$$implying that $3^0=1$.
answered Oct 4 at 13:31
Vera
2,312517
2,312517
1
âÂÂimplyingâ is a bit strong here, else what about nonsense like âÂÂ$-1 = (-1)^tfrac12times(-1)^tfrac12 =$ product of two square roots, square roots are always positive $Longrightarrow$ $-1$ is positiveâÂÂ?
â leftaroundabout
Oct 4 at 23:42
3
It's nonsense because $x^1/2$ is not the same thing as $sqrtx$ in the first place, and then because the square root of -1 is $i$, which doesn't follow the ordering of negative/positive at all.
â Nij
Oct 4 at 23:56
2
How is $x^1/2$ not the same as $sqrtx$?
â GraphicsMuncher
2 days ago
@leftaroundabout That's nonsense, but not because of Vera's property. It's nonsense because the middle claim, namely "square roots are always positive", is simply false; in the reals because square roots don't always exist and in the complex plane because non-reals aren't positive and are frequently square roots.
â Daniel Wagner
yesterday
1
@DanielWagner my example wasn't particularly well thought through, but the point was that you can't, in general, just toss around calculation rules outside of the domain they were originally defined in, and then use the âÂÂresultsâ to prove that such and such previously undefined expression must have a certain value. You can use that as the motivation for extending the definition, but the proof that it's actually consistent needs to be done separately.
â leftaroundabout
yesterday
add a comment |Â
1
âÂÂimplyingâ is a bit strong here, else what about nonsense like âÂÂ$-1 = (-1)^tfrac12times(-1)^tfrac12 =$ product of two square roots, square roots are always positive $Longrightarrow$ $-1$ is positiveâÂÂ?
â leftaroundabout
Oct 4 at 23:42
3
It's nonsense because $x^1/2$ is not the same thing as $sqrtx$ in the first place, and then because the square root of -1 is $i$, which doesn't follow the ordering of negative/positive at all.
â Nij
Oct 4 at 23:56
2
How is $x^1/2$ not the same as $sqrtx$?
â GraphicsMuncher
2 days ago
@leftaroundabout That's nonsense, but not because of Vera's property. It's nonsense because the middle claim, namely "square roots are always positive", is simply false; in the reals because square roots don't always exist and in the complex plane because non-reals aren't positive and are frequently square roots.
â Daniel Wagner
yesterday
1
@DanielWagner my example wasn't particularly well thought through, but the point was that you can't, in general, just toss around calculation rules outside of the domain they were originally defined in, and then use the âÂÂresultsâ to prove that such and such previously undefined expression must have a certain value. You can use that as the motivation for extending the definition, but the proof that it's actually consistent needs to be done separately.
â leftaroundabout
yesterday
1
1
âÂÂimplyingâ is a bit strong here, else what about nonsense like âÂÂ$-1 = (-1)^tfrac12times(-1)^tfrac12 =$ product of two square roots, square roots are always positive $Longrightarrow$ $-1$ is positiveâÂÂ?
â leftaroundabout
Oct 4 at 23:42
âÂÂimplyingâ is a bit strong here, else what about nonsense like âÂÂ$-1 = (-1)^tfrac12times(-1)^tfrac12 =$ product of two square roots, square roots are always positive $Longrightarrow$ $-1$ is positiveâÂÂ?
â leftaroundabout
Oct 4 at 23:42
3
3
It's nonsense because $x^1/2$ is not the same thing as $sqrtx$ in the first place, and then because the square root of -1 is $i$, which doesn't follow the ordering of negative/positive at all.
â Nij
Oct 4 at 23:56
It's nonsense because $x^1/2$ is not the same thing as $sqrtx$ in the first place, and then because the square root of -1 is $i$, which doesn't follow the ordering of negative/positive at all.
â Nij
Oct 4 at 23:56
2
2
How is $x^1/2$ not the same as $sqrtx$?
â GraphicsMuncher
2 days ago
How is $x^1/2$ not the same as $sqrtx$?
â GraphicsMuncher
2 days ago
@leftaroundabout That's nonsense, but not because of Vera's property. It's nonsense because the middle claim, namely "square roots are always positive", is simply false; in the reals because square roots don't always exist and in the complex plane because non-reals aren't positive and are frequently square roots.
â Daniel Wagner
yesterday
@leftaroundabout That's nonsense, but not because of Vera's property. It's nonsense because the middle claim, namely "square roots are always positive", is simply false; in the reals because square roots don't always exist and in the complex plane because non-reals aren't positive and are frequently square roots.
â Daniel Wagner
yesterday
1
1
@DanielWagner my example wasn't particularly well thought through, but the point was that you can't, in general, just toss around calculation rules outside of the domain they were originally defined in, and then use the âÂÂresultsâ to prove that such and such previously undefined expression must have a certain value. You can use that as the motivation for extending the definition, but the proof that it's actually consistent needs to be done separately.
â leftaroundabout
yesterday
@DanielWagner my example wasn't particularly well thought through, but the point was that you can't, in general, just toss around calculation rules outside of the domain they were originally defined in, and then use the âÂÂresultsâ to prove that such and such previously undefined expression must have a certain value. You can use that as the motivation for extending the definition, but the proof that it's actually consistent needs to be done separately.
â leftaroundabout
yesterday
add a comment |Â
up vote
23
down vote
5xum answer is the correct one, but I'll try to give you a more intuitive way to get $x^0 = 1$
We have
$$x^k = underbracextimes x cdots x_ktext times=1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_ktext times$$
Therefore
$$x^0 = 1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_0text times = 1 $$
2
This is actually a superior way to define exponentation. Start with the multiplicative identity (1) and multiply by x, k times. If k is zero, there are no multiplications by x.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:34
6
I would not call this more intuitive. In fact, it is not intuitive at all that you want to multiply by 1 in the definition. You only realize this is useful after you've gone through the reasoning summarized in 5xum's post.
â Paul Sinclair
Oct 4 at 16:30
In my intermediate algebra classes I define $x^0 = 1$, and for natural $n$, $x^n = 1 cdot x cdot x...$ [$n$ times], and $x^-n = 1 div x div x...$ [$n$ times]. So the symmetry of each one starting with $1$ seems pretty intuitive. Also there are actually $n$ operations (see elsewhere comment by @MontyHarder).
â Daniel R. Collins
Oct 4 at 18:08
3
Couldn't you just as easily say that $x^k = x times x cdots x = 0 + x times x cdots x$, so $x^0 = 0$?
â Arcanist Lupus
Oct 5 at 1:00
2
@ArcanistLupus Well, never thought about it this way. I think that it doesn't really make sense to use the additive identity (0+a=a) for exponentation, since the usual formula is all about multiplicating. But you're right that it's a flaw in my reasoning, thanks for pointing it out!
â F.Carette
2 days ago
 |Â
show 4 more comments
up vote
23
down vote
5xum answer is the correct one, but I'll try to give you a more intuitive way to get $x^0 = 1$
We have
$$x^k = underbracextimes x cdots x_ktext times=1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_ktext times$$
Therefore
$$x^0 = 1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_0text times = 1 $$
2
This is actually a superior way to define exponentation. Start with the multiplicative identity (1) and multiply by x, k times. If k is zero, there are no multiplications by x.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:34
6
I would not call this more intuitive. In fact, it is not intuitive at all that you want to multiply by 1 in the definition. You only realize this is useful after you've gone through the reasoning summarized in 5xum's post.
â Paul Sinclair
Oct 4 at 16:30
In my intermediate algebra classes I define $x^0 = 1$, and for natural $n$, $x^n = 1 cdot x cdot x...$ [$n$ times], and $x^-n = 1 div x div x...$ [$n$ times]. So the symmetry of each one starting with $1$ seems pretty intuitive. Also there are actually $n$ operations (see elsewhere comment by @MontyHarder).
â Daniel R. Collins
Oct 4 at 18:08
3
Couldn't you just as easily say that $x^k = x times x cdots x = 0 + x times x cdots x$, so $x^0 = 0$?
â Arcanist Lupus
Oct 5 at 1:00
2
@ArcanistLupus Well, never thought about it this way. I think that it doesn't really make sense to use the additive identity (0+a=a) for exponentation, since the usual formula is all about multiplicating. But you're right that it's a flaw in my reasoning, thanks for pointing it out!
â F.Carette
2 days ago
 |Â
show 4 more comments
up vote
23
down vote
up vote
23
down vote
5xum answer is the correct one, but I'll try to give you a more intuitive way to get $x^0 = 1$
We have
$$x^k = underbracextimes x cdots x_ktext times=1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_ktext times$$
Therefore
$$x^0 = 1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_0text times = 1 $$
5xum answer is the correct one, but I'll try to give you a more intuitive way to get $x^0 = 1$
We have
$$x^k = underbracextimes x cdots x_ktext times=1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_ktext times$$
Therefore
$$x^0 = 1 times underbrace xtimes x cdots x_0text times = 1 $$
answered Oct 4 at 14:14
F.Carette
9199
9199
2
This is actually a superior way to define exponentation. Start with the multiplicative identity (1) and multiply by x, k times. If k is zero, there are no multiplications by x.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:34
6
I would not call this more intuitive. In fact, it is not intuitive at all that you want to multiply by 1 in the definition. You only realize this is useful after you've gone through the reasoning summarized in 5xum's post.
â Paul Sinclair
Oct 4 at 16:30
In my intermediate algebra classes I define $x^0 = 1$, and for natural $n$, $x^n = 1 cdot x cdot x...$ [$n$ times], and $x^-n = 1 div x div x...$ [$n$ times]. So the symmetry of each one starting with $1$ seems pretty intuitive. Also there are actually $n$ operations (see elsewhere comment by @MontyHarder).
â Daniel R. Collins
Oct 4 at 18:08
3
Couldn't you just as easily say that $x^k = x times x cdots x = 0 + x times x cdots x$, so $x^0 = 0$?
â Arcanist Lupus
Oct 5 at 1:00
2
@ArcanistLupus Well, never thought about it this way. I think that it doesn't really make sense to use the additive identity (0+a=a) for exponentation, since the usual formula is all about multiplicating. But you're right that it's a flaw in my reasoning, thanks for pointing it out!
â F.Carette
2 days ago
 |Â
show 4 more comments
2
This is actually a superior way to define exponentation. Start with the multiplicative identity (1) and multiply by x, k times. If k is zero, there are no multiplications by x.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:34
6
I would not call this more intuitive. In fact, it is not intuitive at all that you want to multiply by 1 in the definition. You only realize this is useful after you've gone through the reasoning summarized in 5xum's post.
â Paul Sinclair
Oct 4 at 16:30
In my intermediate algebra classes I define $x^0 = 1$, and for natural $n$, $x^n = 1 cdot x cdot x...$ [$n$ times], and $x^-n = 1 div x div x...$ [$n$ times]. So the symmetry of each one starting with $1$ seems pretty intuitive. Also there are actually $n$ operations (see elsewhere comment by @MontyHarder).
â Daniel R. Collins
Oct 4 at 18:08
3
Couldn't you just as easily say that $x^k = x times x cdots x = 0 + x times x cdots x$, so $x^0 = 0$?
â Arcanist Lupus
Oct 5 at 1:00
2
@ArcanistLupus Well, never thought about it this way. I think that it doesn't really make sense to use the additive identity (0+a=a) for exponentation, since the usual formula is all about multiplicating. But you're right that it's a flaw in my reasoning, thanks for pointing it out!
â F.Carette
2 days ago
2
2
This is actually a superior way to define exponentation. Start with the multiplicative identity (1) and multiply by x, k times. If k is zero, there are no multiplications by x.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:34
This is actually a superior way to define exponentation. Start with the multiplicative identity (1) and multiply by x, k times. If k is zero, there are no multiplications by x.
â Monty Harder
Oct 4 at 15:34
6
6
I would not call this more intuitive. In fact, it is not intuitive at all that you want to multiply by 1 in the definition. You only realize this is useful after you've gone through the reasoning summarized in 5xum's post.
â Paul Sinclair
Oct 4 at 16:30
I would not call this more intuitive. In fact, it is not intuitive at all that you want to multiply by 1 in the definition. You only realize this is useful after you've gone through the reasoning summarized in 5xum's post.
â Paul Sinclair
Oct 4 at 16:30
In my intermediate algebra classes I define $x^0 = 1$, and for natural $n$, $x^n = 1 cdot x cdot x...$ [$n$ times], and $x^-n = 1 div x div x...$ [$n$ times]. So the symmetry of each one starting with $1$ seems pretty intuitive. Also there are actually $n$ operations (see elsewhere comment by @MontyHarder).
â Daniel R. Collins
Oct 4 at 18:08
In my intermediate algebra classes I define $x^0 = 1$, and for natural $n$, $x^n = 1 cdot x cdot x...$ [$n$ times], and $x^-n = 1 div x div x...$ [$n$ times]. So the symmetry of each one starting with $1$ seems pretty intuitive. Also there are actually $n$ operations (see elsewhere comment by @MontyHarder).
â Daniel R. Collins
Oct 4 at 18:08
3
3
Couldn't you just as easily say that $x^k = x times x cdots x = 0 + x times x cdots x$, so $x^0 = 0$?
â Arcanist Lupus
Oct 5 at 1:00
Couldn't you just as easily say that $x^k = x times x cdots x = 0 + x times x cdots x$, so $x^0 = 0$?
â Arcanist Lupus
Oct 5 at 1:00
2
2
@ArcanistLupus Well, never thought about it this way. I think that it doesn't really make sense to use the additive identity (0+a=a) for exponentation, since the usual formula is all about multiplicating. But you're right that it's a flaw in my reasoning, thanks for pointing it out!
â F.Carette
2 days ago
@ArcanistLupus Well, never thought about it this way. I think that it doesn't really make sense to use the additive identity (0+a=a) for exponentation, since the usual formula is all about multiplicating. But you're right that it's a flaw in my reasoning, thanks for pointing it out!
â F.Carette
2 days ago
 |Â
show 4 more comments
up vote
12
down vote
The value of the empty product really is a consequence of the associative property of multiplication: To see this, consider the following: For any nonempty, finite set $A$ of numbers, let's define $$displaystyle prod_a in A a$$ as the product of all numbers in $A$. Note that $A$ really needs to be nonempty (at least for now), otherwise this definition doesn't make any sense. Then, if we have another disjoint set $B$, the product of all numbers in $Acup B$ will be $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right).$$ For example let's take the two sets $M:=x,y$ and $N:=z$. Then $Mcup N = x,y,z$, and by the associative law $$displaystyle prod_p in M cup Np = x*y*z=(x*y)*(z)= left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_n in N n right).$$ Now, let's try to extend this notation to the empty set $$. What should $displaystyle prod_x in x$ be? If we want to keep the rule $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right),$$ then there is only one natural choice: Since for any set $M$ we have $M = M cup $, it follows that $$displaystyle prod_m in M m = displaystyle prod_x in M cup x = left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_x in x right).$$ For this to hold the empty product $displaystyle prod_x in x$ has to be equal to the multiplicative identity, $1$. By the same argument, the empty sum is equal to the additive identity, $0$.
4
This product notation probably works nicer if you use multisets instead of sets. Then there are no worries about disjointness.
â Joonas Ilmavirta
2 days ago
1
...or disjoint union, $sqcup$.
â AccidentalFourierTransform
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
12
down vote
The value of the empty product really is a consequence of the associative property of multiplication: To see this, consider the following: For any nonempty, finite set $A$ of numbers, let's define $$displaystyle prod_a in A a$$ as the product of all numbers in $A$. Note that $A$ really needs to be nonempty (at least for now), otherwise this definition doesn't make any sense. Then, if we have another disjoint set $B$, the product of all numbers in $Acup B$ will be $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right).$$ For example let's take the two sets $M:=x,y$ and $N:=z$. Then $Mcup N = x,y,z$, and by the associative law $$displaystyle prod_p in M cup Np = x*y*z=(x*y)*(z)= left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_n in N n right).$$ Now, let's try to extend this notation to the empty set $$. What should $displaystyle prod_x in x$ be? If we want to keep the rule $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right),$$ then there is only one natural choice: Since for any set $M$ we have $M = M cup $, it follows that $$displaystyle prod_m in M m = displaystyle prod_x in M cup x = left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_x in x right).$$ For this to hold the empty product $displaystyle prod_x in x$ has to be equal to the multiplicative identity, $1$. By the same argument, the empty sum is equal to the additive identity, $0$.
4
This product notation probably works nicer if you use multisets instead of sets. Then there are no worries about disjointness.
â Joonas Ilmavirta
2 days ago
1
...or disjoint union, $sqcup$.
â AccidentalFourierTransform
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
12
down vote
up vote
12
down vote
The value of the empty product really is a consequence of the associative property of multiplication: To see this, consider the following: For any nonempty, finite set $A$ of numbers, let's define $$displaystyle prod_a in A a$$ as the product of all numbers in $A$. Note that $A$ really needs to be nonempty (at least for now), otherwise this definition doesn't make any sense. Then, if we have another disjoint set $B$, the product of all numbers in $Acup B$ will be $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right).$$ For example let's take the two sets $M:=x,y$ and $N:=z$. Then $Mcup N = x,y,z$, and by the associative law $$displaystyle prod_p in M cup Np = x*y*z=(x*y)*(z)= left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_n in N n right).$$ Now, let's try to extend this notation to the empty set $$. What should $displaystyle prod_x in x$ be? If we want to keep the rule $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right),$$ then there is only one natural choice: Since for any set $M$ we have $M = M cup $, it follows that $$displaystyle prod_m in M m = displaystyle prod_x in M cup x = left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_x in x right).$$ For this to hold the empty product $displaystyle prod_x in x$ has to be equal to the multiplicative identity, $1$. By the same argument, the empty sum is equal to the additive identity, $0$.
The value of the empty product really is a consequence of the associative property of multiplication: To see this, consider the following: For any nonempty, finite set $A$ of numbers, let's define $$displaystyle prod_a in A a$$ as the product of all numbers in $A$. Note that $A$ really needs to be nonempty (at least for now), otherwise this definition doesn't make any sense. Then, if we have another disjoint set $B$, the product of all numbers in $Acup B$ will be $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right).$$ For example let's take the two sets $M:=x,y$ and $N:=z$. Then $Mcup N = x,y,z$, and by the associative law $$displaystyle prod_p in M cup Np = x*y*z=(x*y)*(z)= left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_n in N n right).$$ Now, let's try to extend this notation to the empty set $$. What should $displaystyle prod_x in x$ be? If we want to keep the rule $$displaystyle prod_x in A cup B x= left( displaystyle prod_a in A a right) left( displaystyle prod_b in B b right),$$ then there is only one natural choice: Since for any set $M$ we have $M = M cup $, it follows that $$displaystyle prod_m in M m = displaystyle prod_x in M cup x = left( displaystyle prod_m in M m right) left( displaystyle prod_x in x right).$$ For this to hold the empty product $displaystyle prod_x in x$ has to be equal to the multiplicative identity, $1$. By the same argument, the empty sum is equal to the additive identity, $0$.
edited 2 days ago
answered Oct 4 at 17:41
Jannik Pitt
368314
368314
4
This product notation probably works nicer if you use multisets instead of sets. Then there are no worries about disjointness.
â Joonas Ilmavirta
2 days ago
1
...or disjoint union, $sqcup$.
â AccidentalFourierTransform
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
4
This product notation probably works nicer if you use multisets instead of sets. Then there are no worries about disjointness.
â Joonas Ilmavirta
2 days ago
1
...or disjoint union, $sqcup$.
â AccidentalFourierTransform
2 days ago
4
4
This product notation probably works nicer if you use multisets instead of sets. Then there are no worries about disjointness.
â Joonas Ilmavirta
2 days ago
This product notation probably works nicer if you use multisets instead of sets. Then there are no worries about disjointness.
â Joonas Ilmavirta
2 days ago
1
1
...or disjoint union, $sqcup$.
â AccidentalFourierTransform
2 days ago
...or disjoint union, $sqcup$.
â AccidentalFourierTransform
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
12
down vote
To increase power by one, multiply by 3, for example $3^2times3=3^3$. To decrease power by one, divide by 3, for example $3^2div3=3^1$. If you repeat this, you get $3^1div3=3^0$.
You can see it this way:
$$3^3=3times3times3$$
$$3^2=3times3$$
$$3^1=3$$
$$3^0=3div3$$
$$3^-1=3div3div3$$
New contributor
1
+1; I've successfully explained this to ten year olds by making such a diagram. They didn't have any trouble with it. Good simple answer.
â Wildcard
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
12
down vote
To increase power by one, multiply by 3, for example $3^2times3=3^3$. To decrease power by one, divide by 3, for example $3^2div3=3^1$. If you repeat this, you get $3^1div3=3^0$.
You can see it this way:
$$3^3=3times3times3$$
$$3^2=3times3$$
$$3^1=3$$
$$3^0=3div3$$
$$3^-1=3div3div3$$
New contributor
1
+1; I've successfully explained this to ten year olds by making such a diagram. They didn't have any trouble with it. Good simple answer.
â Wildcard
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
12
down vote
up vote
12
down vote
To increase power by one, multiply by 3, for example $3^2times3=3^3$. To decrease power by one, divide by 3, for example $3^2div3=3^1$. If you repeat this, you get $3^1div3=3^0$.
You can see it this way:
$$3^3=3times3times3$$
$$3^2=3times3$$
$$3^1=3$$
$$3^0=3div3$$
$$3^-1=3div3div3$$
New contributor
To increase power by one, multiply by 3, for example $3^2times3=3^3$. To decrease power by one, divide by 3, for example $3^2div3=3^1$. If you repeat this, you get $3^1div3=3^0$.
You can see it this way:
$$3^3=3times3times3$$
$$3^2=3times3$$
$$3^1=3$$
$$3^0=3div3$$
$$3^-1=3div3div3$$
New contributor
New contributor
answered 2 days ago
fhucho
22113
22113
New contributor
New contributor
1
+1; I've successfully explained this to ten year olds by making such a diagram. They didn't have any trouble with it. Good simple answer.
â Wildcard
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
1
+1; I've successfully explained this to ten year olds by making such a diagram. They didn't have any trouble with it. Good simple answer.
â Wildcard
2 days ago
1
1
+1; I've successfully explained this to ten year olds by making such a diagram. They didn't have any trouble with it. Good simple answer.
â Wildcard
2 days ago
+1; I've successfully explained this to ten year olds by making such a diagram. They didn't have any trouble with it. Good simple answer.
â Wildcard
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
8
down vote
Another way to look at the quantity $a^b$, with $a$ and $b$ non-negative integers, is as the number of mappings (functions) that exist from a set with $b$ elements (henceforth $B$) to a set with $a$ elements (henceforth $A$).
Recall further that a mapping from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is a set $M$ of pairs $(x,y)$ where
- for all $(x,y) in M$, $x in X$ and $y in y$; and
- for all $x in X$, there is exactly one $y in Y$ such that $(x,y) in M$.
Now, if $B$ has zero elements (i.e., if it is the empty set $emptyset$), it is clear that there exists exactly one $M$ that satisfies the two conditions above, namely $M = emptyset$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
8
down vote
Another way to look at the quantity $a^b$, with $a$ and $b$ non-negative integers, is as the number of mappings (functions) that exist from a set with $b$ elements (henceforth $B$) to a set with $a$ elements (henceforth $A$).
Recall further that a mapping from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is a set $M$ of pairs $(x,y)$ where
- for all $(x,y) in M$, $x in X$ and $y in y$; and
- for all $x in X$, there is exactly one $y in Y$ such that $(x,y) in M$.
Now, if $B$ has zero elements (i.e., if it is the empty set $emptyset$), it is clear that there exists exactly one $M$ that satisfies the two conditions above, namely $M = emptyset$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
8
down vote
up vote
8
down vote
Another way to look at the quantity $a^b$, with $a$ and $b$ non-negative integers, is as the number of mappings (functions) that exist from a set with $b$ elements (henceforth $B$) to a set with $a$ elements (henceforth $A$).
Recall further that a mapping from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is a set $M$ of pairs $(x,y)$ where
- for all $(x,y) in M$, $x in X$ and $y in y$; and
- for all $x in X$, there is exactly one $y in Y$ such that $(x,y) in M$.
Now, if $B$ has zero elements (i.e., if it is the empty set $emptyset$), it is clear that there exists exactly one $M$ that satisfies the two conditions above, namely $M = emptyset$.
Another way to look at the quantity $a^b$, with $a$ and $b$ non-negative integers, is as the number of mappings (functions) that exist from a set with $b$ elements (henceforth $B$) to a set with $a$ elements (henceforth $A$).
Recall further that a mapping from a set $X$ to a set $Y$ is a set $M$ of pairs $(x,y)$ where
- for all $(x,y) in M$, $x in X$ and $y in y$; and
- for all $x in X$, there is exactly one $y in Y$ such that $(x,y) in M$.
Now, if $B$ has zero elements (i.e., if it is the empty set $emptyset$), it is clear that there exists exactly one $M$ that satisfies the two conditions above, namely $M = emptyset$.
answered 2 days ago
fkraiem
2,8161510
2,8161510
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
Not the simplest answer, but a way to think about this and related questions about combining a bunch of things.
If you have a list of numbers and you want to write a computer program to sum them you do something like
sum = 0
while there are unsummed numbers in the list
sum = sum + next number
Then the sum
variable contains the answer. If the list is empty the while
loop never does anything and the sum
is $0$.
For multiplication you want
product = 1
while there are unmultiplied numbers in the list
product = product * next number
That clearly gives the correct answer when the list is not empty and tells you what the answer should be for an empty list.
This same strategy (called "accumulation") works for combining values whenever you have an associative combiner.
answer = identity element for operation
while there are unused objects in the list
answer= answer (operator) next object
For example, you can use this pattern to find the union of a set of sets, starting with the empty set, or the intersection of a set of sets, starting with the universe of discourse.
This way the definition for $x^k$ is also simpler. Compare $x^k = 1cdot underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$ with effectively only one base case ($k$ = 0) to the alternative: $x^0 = 1$, $x^k = underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$. Here we have effectively two base cases ($k = 0, 1$).
â ComFreek
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
Not the simplest answer, but a way to think about this and related questions about combining a bunch of things.
If you have a list of numbers and you want to write a computer program to sum them you do something like
sum = 0
while there are unsummed numbers in the list
sum = sum + next number
Then the sum
variable contains the answer. If the list is empty the while
loop never does anything and the sum
is $0$.
For multiplication you want
product = 1
while there are unmultiplied numbers in the list
product = product * next number
That clearly gives the correct answer when the list is not empty and tells you what the answer should be for an empty list.
This same strategy (called "accumulation") works for combining values whenever you have an associative combiner.
answer = identity element for operation
while there are unused objects in the list
answer= answer (operator) next object
For example, you can use this pattern to find the union of a set of sets, starting with the empty set, or the intersection of a set of sets, starting with the universe of discourse.
This way the definition for $x^k$ is also simpler. Compare $x^k = 1cdot underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$ with effectively only one base case ($k$ = 0) to the alternative: $x^0 = 1$, $x^k = underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$. Here we have effectively two base cases ($k = 0, 1$).
â ComFreek
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
up vote
7
down vote
Not the simplest answer, but a way to think about this and related questions about combining a bunch of things.
If you have a list of numbers and you want to write a computer program to sum them you do something like
sum = 0
while there are unsummed numbers in the list
sum = sum + next number
Then the sum
variable contains the answer. If the list is empty the while
loop never does anything and the sum
is $0$.
For multiplication you want
product = 1
while there are unmultiplied numbers in the list
product = product * next number
That clearly gives the correct answer when the list is not empty and tells you what the answer should be for an empty list.
This same strategy (called "accumulation") works for combining values whenever you have an associative combiner.
answer = identity element for operation
while there are unused objects in the list
answer= answer (operator) next object
For example, you can use this pattern to find the union of a set of sets, starting with the empty set, or the intersection of a set of sets, starting with the universe of discourse.
Not the simplest answer, but a way to think about this and related questions about combining a bunch of things.
If you have a list of numbers and you want to write a computer program to sum them you do something like
sum = 0
while there are unsummed numbers in the list
sum = sum + next number
Then the sum
variable contains the answer. If the list is empty the while
loop never does anything and the sum
is $0$.
For multiplication you want
product = 1
while there are unmultiplied numbers in the list
product = product * next number
That clearly gives the correct answer when the list is not empty and tells you what the answer should be for an empty list.
This same strategy (called "accumulation") works for combining values whenever you have an associative combiner.
answer = identity element for operation
while there are unused objects in the list
answer= answer (operator) next object
For example, you can use this pattern to find the union of a set of sets, starting with the empty set, or the intersection of a set of sets, starting with the universe of discourse.
answered Oct 5 at 0:46
Ethan Bolker
37.1k54299
37.1k54299
This way the definition for $x^k$ is also simpler. Compare $x^k = 1cdot underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$ with effectively only one base case ($k$ = 0) to the alternative: $x^0 = 1$, $x^k = underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$. Here we have effectively two base cases ($k = 0, 1$).
â ComFreek
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
This way the definition for $x^k$ is also simpler. Compare $x^k = 1cdot underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$ with effectively only one base case ($k$ = 0) to the alternative: $x^0 = 1$, $x^k = underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$. Here we have effectively two base cases ($k = 0, 1$).
â ComFreek
2 days ago
This way the definition for $x^k$ is also simpler. Compare $x^k = 1cdot underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$ with effectively only one base case ($k$ = 0) to the alternative: $x^0 = 1$, $x^k = underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$. Here we have effectively two base cases ($k = 0, 1$).
â ComFreek
2 days ago
This way the definition for $x^k$ is also simpler. Compare $x^k = 1cdot underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$ with effectively only one base case ($k$ = 0) to the alternative: $x^0 = 1$, $x^k = underbracexcdotldotscdot x_textk times$. Here we have effectively two base cases ($k = 0, 1$).
â ComFreek
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
6
down vote
A definition of powers of natural numbers that is based on maps between finite sets can be formulated in real world terms of fruit and people.
Say you have an amount $b$ of fruit, each of a different kind.
- For example an orange and a pear, which means $b = 2$.
Now say there are $a$ persons between whom you can distribute the fruit.
- E.g. Alice, Bob and Carol, for $a = 3$. (No, you can't take fruit for yourself.)
The power $a^b$ is the number of possibilities that you have for distributing the fruit between them.
You could write up all the different possibilities, and find that there are $9$ of them:
- Alice: orange, pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: Nothing. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: orange. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange, pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: pear. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange, pear.
Of course, you could have found that result by observing that you have $3$ choices for whom to give the orange, and then for each of those choices $3$ more for the $pear$, giving a total of $3 cdot 3 = 9$ possibilities. Either way, we conclude $3^2 = 9$.
Now for the actual questions:
You don't have any fruit, and there are three people that are ready to be given fruit.
Everybody doesn't get a fruit:
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
And this is the only one possibility that you have. Thus $3^0 = 1$.
While you only have only one option in this case, it is still a valid assignment of $0$ fruits to $3$ people.
add a comment |Â
up vote
6
down vote
A definition of powers of natural numbers that is based on maps between finite sets can be formulated in real world terms of fruit and people.
Say you have an amount $b$ of fruit, each of a different kind.
- For example an orange and a pear, which means $b = 2$.
Now say there are $a$ persons between whom you can distribute the fruit.
- E.g. Alice, Bob and Carol, for $a = 3$. (No, you can't take fruit for yourself.)
The power $a^b$ is the number of possibilities that you have for distributing the fruit between them.
You could write up all the different possibilities, and find that there are $9$ of them:
- Alice: orange, pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: Nothing. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: orange. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange, pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: pear. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange, pear.
Of course, you could have found that result by observing that you have $3$ choices for whom to give the orange, and then for each of those choices $3$ more for the $pear$, giving a total of $3 cdot 3 = 9$ possibilities. Either way, we conclude $3^2 = 9$.
Now for the actual questions:
You don't have any fruit, and there are three people that are ready to be given fruit.
Everybody doesn't get a fruit:
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
And this is the only one possibility that you have. Thus $3^0 = 1$.
While you only have only one option in this case, it is still a valid assignment of $0$ fruits to $3$ people.
add a comment |Â
up vote
6
down vote
up vote
6
down vote
A definition of powers of natural numbers that is based on maps between finite sets can be formulated in real world terms of fruit and people.
Say you have an amount $b$ of fruit, each of a different kind.
- For example an orange and a pear, which means $b = 2$.
Now say there are $a$ persons between whom you can distribute the fruit.
- E.g. Alice, Bob and Carol, for $a = 3$. (No, you can't take fruit for yourself.)
The power $a^b$ is the number of possibilities that you have for distributing the fruit between them.
You could write up all the different possibilities, and find that there are $9$ of them:
- Alice: orange, pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: Nothing. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: orange. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange, pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: pear. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange, pear.
Of course, you could have found that result by observing that you have $3$ choices for whom to give the orange, and then for each of those choices $3$ more for the $pear$, giving a total of $3 cdot 3 = 9$ possibilities. Either way, we conclude $3^2 = 9$.
Now for the actual questions:
You don't have any fruit, and there are three people that are ready to be given fruit.
Everybody doesn't get a fruit:
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
And this is the only one possibility that you have. Thus $3^0 = 1$.
While you only have only one option in this case, it is still a valid assignment of $0$ fruits to $3$ people.
A definition of powers of natural numbers that is based on maps between finite sets can be formulated in real world terms of fruit and people.
Say you have an amount $b$ of fruit, each of a different kind.
- For example an orange and a pear, which means $b = 2$.
Now say there are $a$ persons between whom you can distribute the fruit.
- E.g. Alice, Bob and Carol, for $a = 3$. (No, you can't take fruit for yourself.)
The power $a^b$ is the number of possibilities that you have for distributing the fruit between them.
You could write up all the different possibilities, and find that there are $9$ of them:
- Alice: orange, pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: orange. Bob: Nothing. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: orange. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange, pear. Carol: Nothing.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: orange. Carol: pear.
- Alice: pear. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: pear. Carol: orange.
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: orange, pear.
Of course, you could have found that result by observing that you have $3$ choices for whom to give the orange, and then for each of those choices $3$ more for the $pear$, giving a total of $3 cdot 3 = 9$ possibilities. Either way, we conclude $3^2 = 9$.
Now for the actual questions:
You don't have any fruit, and there are three people that are ready to be given fruit.
Everybody doesn't get a fruit:
- Alice: Nothing. Bob: Nothing. Carol: Nothing.
And this is the only one possibility that you have. Thus $3^0 = 1$.
While you only have only one option in this case, it is still a valid assignment of $0$ fruits to $3$ people.
answered 2 days ago
Julian Bitterwolf
635
635
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
depends in who you need to explain this to,
if beginners for abstract algebra then this may work
$x^k = 1 ÃÂ k ÃÂ ... ÃÂ k $ (x times)
Therefore
When the power = 0 the k will not be repeated at all
$ x^0 = 1 $
New contributor
1
How is this different from math.stackexchange.com/a/2942188/78700?
â chepner
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
depends in who you need to explain this to,
if beginners for abstract algebra then this may work
$x^k = 1 ÃÂ k ÃÂ ... ÃÂ k $ (x times)
Therefore
When the power = 0 the k will not be repeated at all
$ x^0 = 1 $
New contributor
1
How is this different from math.stackexchange.com/a/2942188/78700?
â chepner
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
depends in who you need to explain this to,
if beginners for abstract algebra then this may work
$x^k = 1 ÃÂ k ÃÂ ... ÃÂ k $ (x times)
Therefore
When the power = 0 the k will not be repeated at all
$ x^0 = 1 $
New contributor
depends in who you need to explain this to,
if beginners for abstract algebra then this may work
$x^k = 1 ÃÂ k ÃÂ ... ÃÂ k $ (x times)
Therefore
When the power = 0 the k will not be repeated at all
$ x^0 = 1 $
New contributor
New contributor
answered Oct 5 at 2:28
asmgx
1414
1414
New contributor
New contributor
1
How is this different from math.stackexchange.com/a/2942188/78700?
â chepner
2 days ago
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1
How is this different from math.stackexchange.com/a/2942188/78700?
â chepner
2 days ago
1
1
How is this different from math.stackexchange.com/a/2942188/78700?
â chepner
2 days ago
How is this different from math.stackexchange.com/a/2942188/78700?
â chepner
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
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I suppose one explanation is that $1$ is the multiplicative identity, similar to how $0$ is the additive identity. $3 times 0 = 0$. That is, starting with the additive identity, if you add the number $3$ to it zero times, you will get $0$.
$3^0 = 1$. That is, starting with the multiplicative identity, if you multiply it by $3$ zero times, you will get $1$.
Could this explanation be understood by someone who doesn't understand additive identities and multiplicative identities? If not, then you should start by explaining those concepts.
$0$ is the additive identity because if you add $0$ to anything, you get that number back. $1$ is the multiplicative identity because if you multiply anything by it, you get that number back.
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up vote
2
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I suppose one explanation is that $1$ is the multiplicative identity, similar to how $0$ is the additive identity. $3 times 0 = 0$. That is, starting with the additive identity, if you add the number $3$ to it zero times, you will get $0$.
$3^0 = 1$. That is, starting with the multiplicative identity, if you multiply it by $3$ zero times, you will get $1$.
Could this explanation be understood by someone who doesn't understand additive identities and multiplicative identities? If not, then you should start by explaining those concepts.
$0$ is the additive identity because if you add $0$ to anything, you get that number back. $1$ is the multiplicative identity because if you multiply anything by it, you get that number back.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
I suppose one explanation is that $1$ is the multiplicative identity, similar to how $0$ is the additive identity. $3 times 0 = 0$. That is, starting with the additive identity, if you add the number $3$ to it zero times, you will get $0$.
$3^0 = 1$. That is, starting with the multiplicative identity, if you multiply it by $3$ zero times, you will get $1$.
Could this explanation be understood by someone who doesn't understand additive identities and multiplicative identities? If not, then you should start by explaining those concepts.
$0$ is the additive identity because if you add $0$ to anything, you get that number back. $1$ is the multiplicative identity because if you multiply anything by it, you get that number back.
I suppose one explanation is that $1$ is the multiplicative identity, similar to how $0$ is the additive identity. $3 times 0 = 0$. That is, starting with the additive identity, if you add the number $3$ to it zero times, you will get $0$.
$3^0 = 1$. That is, starting with the multiplicative identity, if you multiply it by $3$ zero times, you will get $1$.
Could this explanation be understood by someone who doesn't understand additive identities and multiplicative identities? If not, then you should start by explaining those concepts.
$0$ is the additive identity because if you add $0$ to anything, you get that number back. $1$ is the multiplicative identity because if you multiply anything by it, you get that number back.
edited yesterday
David R.
3201728
3201728
answered 2 days ago
John
2012
2012
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2
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One intuitive way to define an empty product is as a product of 0 terms. Technically, by that definition, there is no such thing as the empty product because there are 0 ways to bracket a sequence of 0 terms, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 1 term, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 2 terms, and 2 ways to bracket a sequence of 3 terms. We could solve that problem by defining another meaning for the term "empty product." Since multiplication is associative, we can write a string of numbers with the multiplication symbol without brackets to denote multiplication of all of them. Since 1 is the multiplicative identity, sticking a 1 $times$ at the beginning of the expression gives the same result. We could define this to be another notation for the product of all the numbers in the original expression not counting the one and say that $timestext[2][3]$ is another way of saying 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3. This notation can also be extended to o terms so we can call that the empty product and calculate that $timestext[2][3]$ = 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3 = 6 and the empty product is $timestext$ = 1 = 1.
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2
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One intuitive way to define an empty product is as a product of 0 terms. Technically, by that definition, there is no such thing as the empty product because there are 0 ways to bracket a sequence of 0 terms, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 1 term, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 2 terms, and 2 ways to bracket a sequence of 3 terms. We could solve that problem by defining another meaning for the term "empty product." Since multiplication is associative, we can write a string of numbers with the multiplication symbol without brackets to denote multiplication of all of them. Since 1 is the multiplicative identity, sticking a 1 $times$ at the beginning of the expression gives the same result. We could define this to be another notation for the product of all the numbers in the original expression not counting the one and say that $timestext[2][3]$ is another way of saying 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3. This notation can also be extended to o terms so we can call that the empty product and calculate that $timestext[2][3]$ = 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3 = 6 and the empty product is $timestext$ = 1 = 1.
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up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
One intuitive way to define an empty product is as a product of 0 terms. Technically, by that definition, there is no such thing as the empty product because there are 0 ways to bracket a sequence of 0 terms, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 1 term, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 2 terms, and 2 ways to bracket a sequence of 3 terms. We could solve that problem by defining another meaning for the term "empty product." Since multiplication is associative, we can write a string of numbers with the multiplication symbol without brackets to denote multiplication of all of them. Since 1 is the multiplicative identity, sticking a 1 $times$ at the beginning of the expression gives the same result. We could define this to be another notation for the product of all the numbers in the original expression not counting the one and say that $timestext[2][3]$ is another way of saying 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3. This notation can also be extended to o terms so we can call that the empty product and calculate that $timestext[2][3]$ = 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3 = 6 and the empty product is $timestext$ = 1 = 1.
One intuitive way to define an empty product is as a product of 0 terms. Technically, by that definition, there is no such thing as the empty product because there are 0 ways to bracket a sequence of 0 terms, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 1 term, 1 way to bracket a sequence of 2 terms, and 2 ways to bracket a sequence of 3 terms. We could solve that problem by defining another meaning for the term "empty product." Since multiplication is associative, we can write a string of numbers with the multiplication symbol without brackets to denote multiplication of all of them. Since 1 is the multiplicative identity, sticking a 1 $times$ at the beginning of the expression gives the same result. We could define this to be another notation for the product of all the numbers in the original expression not counting the one and say that $timestext[2][3]$ is another way of saying 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3. This notation can also be extended to o terms so we can call that the empty product and calculate that $timestext[2][3]$ = 1 $times$ 2 $times$ 3 = 6 and the empty product is $timestext$ = 1 = 1.
edited yesterday
answered 2 days ago
Timothy
280211
280211
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1
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Since $a^n=1iff nln a=ln 1=0$ so either $n=0$ or $ln a = 0$. In this case, $ln3>0$ so the result follows.
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Since $a^n=1iff nln a=ln 1=0$ so either $n=0$ or $ln a = 0$. In this case, $ln3>0$ so the result follows.
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1
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Since $a^n=1iff nln a=ln 1=0$ so either $n=0$ or $ln a = 0$. In this case, $ln3>0$ so the result follows.
Since $a^n=1iff nln a=ln 1=0$ so either $n=0$ or $ln a = 0$. In this case, $ln3>0$ so the result follows.
answered yesterday
TheSimpliFire
11.3k62256
11.3k62256
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1
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The idea is to extend exponents allowing also $0$ and $1$, but maintaining the property
$$
x^m+n=x^mx^n
$$
Note that also $x^1$ is problematic, because it is not a product to begin with.
Well, for $x^1$, we want $x^2=x^1x^1$, but also $x^3=x^1x^2$ and we see that defining $x^1=x$ is what we need.
Next we have $0+2=2$, so we need
$$
x^2=x^0x^2
$$
and the only way to make it work is defining $x^0=1$.
At least when $xne0$, but then, why make differences?
Next we can check that the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ is indeed preserved with this definition.
Actually, this paves the way for a rigorous definition of powers with nonnegative integer exponents, namely
$$
x^0=1, qquad x^n+1=x^nxquad (nge0)
$$
using recursion. This allows to prove the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ without âÂÂhandwavingâÂÂ, but with formal induction.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
The idea is to extend exponents allowing also $0$ and $1$, but maintaining the property
$$
x^m+n=x^mx^n
$$
Note that also $x^1$ is problematic, because it is not a product to begin with.
Well, for $x^1$, we want $x^2=x^1x^1$, but also $x^3=x^1x^2$ and we see that defining $x^1=x$ is what we need.
Next we have $0+2=2$, so we need
$$
x^2=x^0x^2
$$
and the only way to make it work is defining $x^0=1$.
At least when $xne0$, but then, why make differences?
Next we can check that the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ is indeed preserved with this definition.
Actually, this paves the way for a rigorous definition of powers with nonnegative integer exponents, namely
$$
x^0=1, qquad x^n+1=x^nxquad (nge0)
$$
using recursion. This allows to prove the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ without âÂÂhandwavingâÂÂ, but with formal induction.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
The idea is to extend exponents allowing also $0$ and $1$, but maintaining the property
$$
x^m+n=x^mx^n
$$
Note that also $x^1$ is problematic, because it is not a product to begin with.
Well, for $x^1$, we want $x^2=x^1x^1$, but also $x^3=x^1x^2$ and we see that defining $x^1=x$ is what we need.
Next we have $0+2=2$, so we need
$$
x^2=x^0x^2
$$
and the only way to make it work is defining $x^0=1$.
At least when $xne0$, but then, why make differences?
Next we can check that the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ is indeed preserved with this definition.
Actually, this paves the way for a rigorous definition of powers with nonnegative integer exponents, namely
$$
x^0=1, qquad x^n+1=x^nxquad (nge0)
$$
using recursion. This allows to prove the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ without âÂÂhandwavingâÂÂ, but with formal induction.
The idea is to extend exponents allowing also $0$ and $1$, but maintaining the property
$$
x^m+n=x^mx^n
$$
Note that also $x^1$ is problematic, because it is not a product to begin with.
Well, for $x^1$, we want $x^2=x^1x^1$, but also $x^3=x^1x^2$ and we see that defining $x^1=x$ is what we need.
Next we have $0+2=2$, so we need
$$
x^2=x^0x^2
$$
and the only way to make it work is defining $x^0=1$.
At least when $xne0$, but then, why make differences?
Next we can check that the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ is indeed preserved with this definition.
Actually, this paves the way for a rigorous definition of powers with nonnegative integer exponents, namely
$$
x^0=1, qquad x^n+1=x^nxquad (nge0)
$$
using recursion. This allows to prove the property $x^m+n=x^mx^n$ without âÂÂhandwavingâÂÂ, but with formal induction.
answered 16 hours ago
egreg
169k1283191
169k1283191
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
If you multiply a number by 3 twice, then you get a number that is 9 times the original number. If you multiply a number by 3 no times, you get a number that is 1 times the original number. This also works for showing 3^1 = 3.
This might be more clear with prime factorization. For instance, compare the facorizations of 12 and 15. The factorization of 12 has two 2's, one 3, and no 5's. 15 has no 2's, one 3, and one 5.
You can also show it with blocks: a cube has 3^3 blocks, a square has 3^2 blocks, a line has 3 blocks, and a single block is 3^0=1.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
If you multiply a number by 3 twice, then you get a number that is 9 times the original number. If you multiply a number by 3 no times, you get a number that is 1 times the original number. This also works for showing 3^1 = 3.
This might be more clear with prime factorization. For instance, compare the facorizations of 12 and 15. The factorization of 12 has two 2's, one 3, and no 5's. 15 has no 2's, one 3, and one 5.
You can also show it with blocks: a cube has 3^3 blocks, a square has 3^2 blocks, a line has 3 blocks, and a single block is 3^0=1.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
If you multiply a number by 3 twice, then you get a number that is 9 times the original number. If you multiply a number by 3 no times, you get a number that is 1 times the original number. This also works for showing 3^1 = 3.
This might be more clear with prime factorization. For instance, compare the facorizations of 12 and 15. The factorization of 12 has two 2's, one 3, and no 5's. 15 has no 2's, one 3, and one 5.
You can also show it with blocks: a cube has 3^3 blocks, a square has 3^2 blocks, a line has 3 blocks, and a single block is 3^0=1.
If you multiply a number by 3 twice, then you get a number that is 9 times the original number. If you multiply a number by 3 no times, you get a number that is 1 times the original number. This also works for showing 3^1 = 3.
This might be more clear with prime factorization. For instance, compare the facorizations of 12 and 15. The factorization of 12 has two 2's, one 3, and no 5's. 15 has no 2's, one 3, and one 5.
You can also show it with blocks: a cube has 3^3 blocks, a square has 3^2 blocks, a line has 3 blocks, and a single block is 3^0=1.
answered 11 hours ago
Acccumulation
6,0642616
6,0642616
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up vote
1
down vote
Below I explain in simple terms the (abstract) algebraic motivation behind the uniform extension of the power laws from positive powers to zero and negative powers. Most of the post is elementary, so if you encounter unfamiliar terms you can safely skip past them.
$a^m+n = a^m a^n, $ i.e. $p(m!+!n) = p(m)p(n),$ for $,p(k) = a^kin Bbb Rbackslash 0,$ shows that powers $,a^Bbb N_+$ under multiplication have the same algebraic (semigroup) structure as the positive naturals $Bbb N_+$ under addition. If we enlarge $Bbb N_+$ to a monoid $Bbb N$ or group $Bbb Z$ by adjoining a neutral element $0$ along with additive inverses (negative integers) then there is a unique way of extending this structure preserving (hom) power map, namely:
$$p(n) = p(0+n) = p(0)p(n) ,Rightarrow, p(0) = 1, rm i.e. a^0= 1$$
$$1 = p(0) = p(-n+n) = p(-n)p(n),Rightarrow, p(-n) = p(n)^-1, rm i.e. a^-n = (a^n)^-1$$
The fact that it proves very handy to use $0$ and negative integers when deducing facts about positive integers transfers to the isomorphic structure of powers $a^Bbb Z.,$ Because the power map on $,Bbb Z,$ is an extension of that on positive powers we are guaranteed that proofs about positive powers remain true even if the proof uses negative or zero powers, just as for proofs about positive integers that use negative integers and zero.
For example using negative integers allows us to concisely state Bezout's lemma for the gcd, i.e. that $,gcd(m,n) = j m + k n,$ for some integers $j,k$ (which may be negative). In particular if $S$ is a group of integers (i.e. closed under subtraction) and it contains two coprime positives then it contains their gcd $= 1$. When translated to the isomorphic power form this says that if a set of powers is closed under division and it contains powers $a^m, a^n$ for coprime $m,n$ then it contains $a^1 = a,,$ e.g. see here where $a^m, a^n$ are integer matrices with determinant $= 1$. However, if we are restricted to positive powers and cancellation (vs. division) then analogous proofs may become much more cumbersome, and the key algebraic structure may become highly obfuscated by the manipulations needed to keep all powers positive, e.g. see here on proving $,a^m = b^m, a^n = b^n,Rightarrow, a = b,$ for integers $a,b,,$ Such enlargments to richer structures with $0$ and inverses allows us to work with objects in simpler forms that better highlight fundamental algebraic structure (here cyclic groups or principal ideals)
This structure preservation principle is a key property that is employed when enlarging algebraic structures such as groups and rings. If the extended structure preserves the laws (axioms) of the base structure then everything we deduce about the base structure using the extended structure remains valid in the base structure. For example, to solve for integer or rational roots of quadratic and cubics we can employ well-known formulas. Even though these formula may employ complex numbers to solve for integer, rational or real roots, those result are valid in these base number systems because the proofs only employed (ring) axioms that remain valid in the base structures, e.g. associative, commutative, distributive laws. These single uniform formulas greatly simplify ancient methods where the quadratic and cubic formulas bifurcated into motley special cases to avoid untrusted "imaginary" or "negative" numbers, as well as (ab)surds (nowadays, using e.g. set-theoretic foundations, we know rigorous methods to construct such extended numbers systems in a way that proves they remain as consistent as the base number system). Further, as above, instead of appealing to ancient heuristics like the Hankel or Peacock Permanence Principle, we can use the axiomatic method to specify precisely what algebraic structure is preserved in extensions (e.g. the (semi)group structure underlying the power laws).
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Below I explain in simple terms the (abstract) algebraic motivation behind the uniform extension of the power laws from positive powers to zero and negative powers. Most of the post is elementary, so if you encounter unfamiliar terms you can safely skip past them.
$a^m+n = a^m a^n, $ i.e. $p(m!+!n) = p(m)p(n),$ for $,p(k) = a^kin Bbb Rbackslash 0,$ shows that powers $,a^Bbb N_+$ under multiplication have the same algebraic (semigroup) structure as the positive naturals $Bbb N_+$ under addition. If we enlarge $Bbb N_+$ to a monoid $Bbb N$ or group $Bbb Z$ by adjoining a neutral element $0$ along with additive inverses (negative integers) then there is a unique way of extending this structure preserving (hom) power map, namely:
$$p(n) = p(0+n) = p(0)p(n) ,Rightarrow, p(0) = 1, rm i.e. a^0= 1$$
$$1 = p(0) = p(-n+n) = p(-n)p(n),Rightarrow, p(-n) = p(n)^-1, rm i.e. a^-n = (a^n)^-1$$
The fact that it proves very handy to use $0$ and negative integers when deducing facts about positive integers transfers to the isomorphic structure of powers $a^Bbb Z.,$ Because the power map on $,Bbb Z,$ is an extension of that on positive powers we are guaranteed that proofs about positive powers remain true even if the proof uses negative or zero powers, just as for proofs about positive integers that use negative integers and zero.
For example using negative integers allows us to concisely state Bezout's lemma for the gcd, i.e. that $,gcd(m,n) = j m + k n,$ for some integers $j,k$ (which may be negative). In particular if $S$ is a group of integers (i.e. closed under subtraction) and it contains two coprime positives then it contains their gcd $= 1$. When translated to the isomorphic power form this says that if a set of powers is closed under division and it contains powers $a^m, a^n$ for coprime $m,n$ then it contains $a^1 = a,,$ e.g. see here where $a^m, a^n$ are integer matrices with determinant $= 1$. However, if we are restricted to positive powers and cancellation (vs. division) then analogous proofs may become much more cumbersome, and the key algebraic structure may become highly obfuscated by the manipulations needed to keep all powers positive, e.g. see here on proving $,a^m = b^m, a^n = b^n,Rightarrow, a = b,$ for integers $a,b,,$ Such enlargments to richer structures with $0$ and inverses allows us to work with objects in simpler forms that better highlight fundamental algebraic structure (here cyclic groups or principal ideals)
This structure preservation principle is a key property that is employed when enlarging algebraic structures such as groups and rings. If the extended structure preserves the laws (axioms) of the base structure then everything we deduce about the base structure using the extended structure remains valid in the base structure. For example, to solve for integer or rational roots of quadratic and cubics we can employ well-known formulas. Even though these formula may employ complex numbers to solve for integer, rational or real roots, those result are valid in these base number systems because the proofs only employed (ring) axioms that remain valid in the base structures, e.g. associative, commutative, distributive laws. These single uniform formulas greatly simplify ancient methods where the quadratic and cubic formulas bifurcated into motley special cases to avoid untrusted "imaginary" or "negative" numbers, as well as (ab)surds (nowadays, using e.g. set-theoretic foundations, we know rigorous methods to construct such extended numbers systems in a way that proves they remain as consistent as the base number system). Further, as above, instead of appealing to ancient heuristics like the Hankel or Peacock Permanence Principle, we can use the axiomatic method to specify precisely what algebraic structure is preserved in extensions (e.g. the (semi)group structure underlying the power laws).
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Below I explain in simple terms the (abstract) algebraic motivation behind the uniform extension of the power laws from positive powers to zero and negative powers. Most of the post is elementary, so if you encounter unfamiliar terms you can safely skip past them.
$a^m+n = a^m a^n, $ i.e. $p(m!+!n) = p(m)p(n),$ for $,p(k) = a^kin Bbb Rbackslash 0,$ shows that powers $,a^Bbb N_+$ under multiplication have the same algebraic (semigroup) structure as the positive naturals $Bbb N_+$ under addition. If we enlarge $Bbb N_+$ to a monoid $Bbb N$ or group $Bbb Z$ by adjoining a neutral element $0$ along with additive inverses (negative integers) then there is a unique way of extending this structure preserving (hom) power map, namely:
$$p(n) = p(0+n) = p(0)p(n) ,Rightarrow, p(0) = 1, rm i.e. a^0= 1$$
$$1 = p(0) = p(-n+n) = p(-n)p(n),Rightarrow, p(-n) = p(n)^-1, rm i.e. a^-n = (a^n)^-1$$
The fact that it proves very handy to use $0$ and negative integers when deducing facts about positive integers transfers to the isomorphic structure of powers $a^Bbb Z.,$ Because the power map on $,Bbb Z,$ is an extension of that on positive powers we are guaranteed that proofs about positive powers remain true even if the proof uses negative or zero powers, just as for proofs about positive integers that use negative integers and zero.
For example using negative integers allows us to concisely state Bezout's lemma for the gcd, i.e. that $,gcd(m,n) = j m + k n,$ for some integers $j,k$ (which may be negative). In particular if $S$ is a group of integers (i.e. closed under subtraction) and it contains two coprime positives then it contains their gcd $= 1$. When translated to the isomorphic power form this says that if a set of powers is closed under division and it contains powers $a^m, a^n$ for coprime $m,n$ then it contains $a^1 = a,,$ e.g. see here where $a^m, a^n$ are integer matrices with determinant $= 1$. However, if we are restricted to positive powers and cancellation (vs. division) then analogous proofs may become much more cumbersome, and the key algebraic structure may become highly obfuscated by the manipulations needed to keep all powers positive, e.g. see here on proving $,a^m = b^m, a^n = b^n,Rightarrow, a = b,$ for integers $a,b,,$ Such enlargments to richer structures with $0$ and inverses allows us to work with objects in simpler forms that better highlight fundamental algebraic structure (here cyclic groups or principal ideals)
This structure preservation principle is a key property that is employed when enlarging algebraic structures such as groups and rings. If the extended structure preserves the laws (axioms) of the base structure then everything we deduce about the base structure using the extended structure remains valid in the base structure. For example, to solve for integer or rational roots of quadratic and cubics we can employ well-known formulas. Even though these formula may employ complex numbers to solve for integer, rational or real roots, those result are valid in these base number systems because the proofs only employed (ring) axioms that remain valid in the base structures, e.g. associative, commutative, distributive laws. These single uniform formulas greatly simplify ancient methods where the quadratic and cubic formulas bifurcated into motley special cases to avoid untrusted "imaginary" or "negative" numbers, as well as (ab)surds (nowadays, using e.g. set-theoretic foundations, we know rigorous methods to construct such extended numbers systems in a way that proves they remain as consistent as the base number system). Further, as above, instead of appealing to ancient heuristics like the Hankel or Peacock Permanence Principle, we can use the axiomatic method to specify precisely what algebraic structure is preserved in extensions (e.g. the (semi)group structure underlying the power laws).
Below I explain in simple terms the (abstract) algebraic motivation behind the uniform extension of the power laws from positive powers to zero and negative powers. Most of the post is elementary, so if you encounter unfamiliar terms you can safely skip past them.
$a^m+n = a^m a^n, $ i.e. $p(m!+!n) = p(m)p(n),$ for $,p(k) = a^kin Bbb Rbackslash 0,$ shows that powers $,a^Bbb N_+$ under multiplication have the same algebraic (semigroup) structure as the positive naturals $Bbb N_+$ under addition. If we enlarge $Bbb N_+$ to a monoid $Bbb N$ or group $Bbb Z$ by adjoining a neutral element $0$ along with additive inverses (negative integers) then there is a unique way of extending this structure preserving (hom) power map, namely:
$$p(n) = p(0+n) = p(0)p(n) ,Rightarrow, p(0) = 1, rm i.e. a^0= 1$$
$$1 = p(0) = p(-n+n) = p(-n)p(n),Rightarrow, p(-n) = p(n)^-1, rm i.e. a^-n = (a^n)^-1$$
The fact that it proves very handy to use $0$ and negative integers when deducing facts about positive integers transfers to the isomorphic structure of powers $a^Bbb Z.,$ Because the power map on $,Bbb Z,$ is an extension of that on positive powers we are guaranteed that proofs about positive powers remain true even if the proof uses negative or zero powers, just as for proofs about positive integers that use negative integers and zero.
For example using negative integers allows us to concisely state Bezout's lemma for the gcd, i.e. that $,gcd(m,n) = j m + k n,$ for some integers $j,k$ (which may be negative). In particular if $S$ is a group of integers (i.e. closed under subtraction) and it contains two coprime positives then it contains their gcd $= 1$. When translated to the isomorphic power form this says that if a set of powers is closed under division and it contains powers $a^m, a^n$ for coprime $m,n$ then it contains $a^1 = a,,$ e.g. see here where $a^m, a^n$ are integer matrices with determinant $= 1$. However, if we are restricted to positive powers and cancellation (vs. division) then analogous proofs may become much more cumbersome, and the key algebraic structure may become highly obfuscated by the manipulations needed to keep all powers positive, e.g. see here on proving $,a^m = b^m, a^n = b^n,Rightarrow, a = b,$ for integers $a,b,,$ Such enlargments to richer structures with $0$ and inverses allows us to work with objects in simpler forms that better highlight fundamental algebraic structure (here cyclic groups or principal ideals)
This structure preservation principle is a key property that is employed when enlarging algebraic structures such as groups and rings. If the extended structure preserves the laws (axioms) of the base structure then everything we deduce about the base structure using the extended structure remains valid in the base structure. For example, to solve for integer or rational roots of quadratic and cubics we can employ well-known formulas. Even though these formula may employ complex numbers to solve for integer, rational or real roots, those result are valid in these base number systems because the proofs only employed (ring) axioms that remain valid in the base structures, e.g. associative, commutative, distributive laws. These single uniform formulas greatly simplify ancient methods where the quadratic and cubic formulas bifurcated into motley special cases to avoid untrusted "imaginary" or "negative" numbers, as well as (ab)surds (nowadays, using e.g. set-theoretic foundations, we know rigorous methods to construct such extended numbers systems in a way that proves they remain as consistent as the base number system). Further, as above, instead of appealing to ancient heuristics like the Hankel or Peacock Permanence Principle, we can use the axiomatic method to specify precisely what algebraic structure is preserved in extensions (e.g. the (semi)group structure underlying the power laws).
edited 6 hours ago
answered 6 hours ago
Bill Dubuque
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2
It is a mathematical operation: we define it so in order to be consistent with the "usual" properties of raising to power: in "real life" there is no "3 raised to the power of 0".
â Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Oct 4 at 14:30
23
3^0 =3^(1-1)=3/3=1
â Avinash N
Oct 4 at 17:46
k^x = 1 * k * ...* k (x times) +> when x is 0 only remains 1 ==> k^0 = 1
â asmgx
Oct 5 at 2:23
1
Also of: math.stackexchange.com/questions/454670/â¦
â Holo
7 hours ago
1
See also Why is $ large 2^0 = 1 $?
â Bill Dubuque
7 hours ago