For what sets does the Lebesgue Diffferentiation Theorem hold in one dimension?

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Lebesgue's differentiation theorem states that if $x$ is a point in $mathbbR^n$ and $f:mathbbR^nrightarrowmathbbR$ is a Lebesgue integrable function, then the limit of $fracint_B f dlambdalambda(B)$ over all balls $B$ centered at $x$ as the diameter of $B$ goes to $0$ is equal almost everywhere to $f(x)$. But if you replace balls with other kinds of set with diameter going to $0$, this need not be true. For instance it need not be true if you replace balls with rectangles.



But my question is, what is known about what collections of sets the Lebesgue Differentiation Theorem holds for in one dimension? We know it holds for bounded intervals. Does it hold for finite unions of bounded open intervals? What about bounded Borel sets? What about bounded Lebesgue measurable sets in general?



Or are all these open problems?










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    Lebesgue's differentiation theorem states that if $x$ is a point in $mathbbR^n$ and $f:mathbbR^nrightarrowmathbbR$ is a Lebesgue integrable function, then the limit of $fracint_B f dlambdalambda(B)$ over all balls $B$ centered at $x$ as the diameter of $B$ goes to $0$ is equal almost everywhere to $f(x)$. But if you replace balls with other kinds of set with diameter going to $0$, this need not be true. For instance it need not be true if you replace balls with rectangles.



    But my question is, what is known about what collections of sets the Lebesgue Differentiation Theorem holds for in one dimension? We know it holds for bounded intervals. Does it hold for finite unions of bounded open intervals? What about bounded Borel sets? What about bounded Lebesgue measurable sets in general?



    Or are all these open problems?










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite











      Lebesgue's differentiation theorem states that if $x$ is a point in $mathbbR^n$ and $f:mathbbR^nrightarrowmathbbR$ is a Lebesgue integrable function, then the limit of $fracint_B f dlambdalambda(B)$ over all balls $B$ centered at $x$ as the diameter of $B$ goes to $0$ is equal almost everywhere to $f(x)$. But if you replace balls with other kinds of set with diameter going to $0$, this need not be true. For instance it need not be true if you replace balls with rectangles.



      But my question is, what is known about what collections of sets the Lebesgue Differentiation Theorem holds for in one dimension? We know it holds for bounded intervals. Does it hold for finite unions of bounded open intervals? What about bounded Borel sets? What about bounded Lebesgue measurable sets in general?



      Or are all these open problems?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Lebesgue's differentiation theorem states that if $x$ is a point in $mathbbR^n$ and $f:mathbbR^nrightarrowmathbbR$ is a Lebesgue integrable function, then the limit of $fracint_B f dlambdalambda(B)$ over all balls $B$ centered at $x$ as the diameter of $B$ goes to $0$ is equal almost everywhere to $f(x)$. But if you replace balls with other kinds of set with diameter going to $0$, this need not be true. For instance it need not be true if you replace balls with rectangles.



      But my question is, what is known about what collections of sets the Lebesgue Differentiation Theorem holds for in one dimension? We know it holds for bounded intervals. Does it hold for finite unions of bounded open intervals? What about bounded Borel sets? What about bounded Lebesgue measurable sets in general?



      Or are all these open problems?







      integration open-problems lebesgue-measure






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      asked Nov 19 at 7:39









      Keshav Srinivasan

      1,50811227




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          It does not hold for rectangles, but holds for rectangles with prescribed directions of edges (that is, for the sets of the form $B=prod_k=1^n [a_k,b_k]$). For bounded unions of intervals it of course does not hold: take two disjoint mesaurable subsets $A,B$ of $mathbbR$ such that $lambda(Acap E)$ and $lambda (Bcap E)$ are positive for any interval $E$. Then for $ain A$ any interval $delta ni a$ contains a density point $bin B$ and you may take the union of an interval $delta_1subset delta$ consisting mostly of points of $B$ and define $B=delta_1 cup (a-lambda(delta_1)/5,a+lambda(delta_1)/5)$. This set is a small union of at most two intervals, contains $a$, but contains many points from $B$. So for $f=chi_A$ the Lebesgue ratio is far from 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Perhaps Doob's martingale convergence theorem can help. Suppose that $newcommandbRmathbbR$ $Csubset bR^n$ is a cube and $fin L^1 (C)$. Suppose that $newcommandePmathscrP$
            $$
            eP_1prec eP_2prec cdots
            $$

            is a sequence of finite partitions of $C$ into Borel subsets such that for any $BineP_i+1$ there exists $B'in eP_i$, $B'supset B$. Assume that the $sigma$-algebra generated by
            $$
            bigcup_igeq 1eP_i
            $$

            coincides with the Borel $sigma$-algebra of $C$. For example this happens if for any open subset $Usubset bR^n$ and any $xin Ccap U$ there exists $igeq 1$ and $B_iineP_i$ such that
            $$
            xin B_isubset Ucap C.
            $$

            For any $xin C$ there exists a unique sequence of Borel sets $B_i(x)ineP_i$ such that $B_i(x)ni x$, $forall i$. Then Doob's martingale convergence theorem implies that for almost any $xin C$ we have
            $$
            f(x) =lim_ito inftyfrac1rm vol;(B_i(x))int_B_i(x) f(y)dy.
            $$

            A bit more is true. If we define
            $$
            f_i(x)=sum_Bin eP_ifrac1rm vol;(B)left(int_B f(y) dyright) I_B(x),
            $$

            where $I_B$ denotes the indicator functio of the subset $B$, then $f_ito f$ in $L^1$ as $itoinfty$.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















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              2 Answers
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              It does not hold for rectangles, but holds for rectangles with prescribed directions of edges (that is, for the sets of the form $B=prod_k=1^n [a_k,b_k]$). For bounded unions of intervals it of course does not hold: take two disjoint mesaurable subsets $A,B$ of $mathbbR$ such that $lambda(Acap E)$ and $lambda (Bcap E)$ are positive for any interval $E$. Then for $ain A$ any interval $delta ni a$ contains a density point $bin B$ and you may take the union of an interval $delta_1subset delta$ consisting mostly of points of $B$ and define $B=delta_1 cup (a-lambda(delta_1)/5,a+lambda(delta_1)/5)$. This set is a small union of at most two intervals, contains $a$, but contains many points from $B$. So for $f=chi_A$ the Lebesgue ratio is far from 1.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                3
                down vote













                It does not hold for rectangles, but holds for rectangles with prescribed directions of edges (that is, for the sets of the form $B=prod_k=1^n [a_k,b_k]$). For bounded unions of intervals it of course does not hold: take two disjoint mesaurable subsets $A,B$ of $mathbbR$ such that $lambda(Acap E)$ and $lambda (Bcap E)$ are positive for any interval $E$. Then for $ain A$ any interval $delta ni a$ contains a density point $bin B$ and you may take the union of an interval $delta_1subset delta$ consisting mostly of points of $B$ and define $B=delta_1 cup (a-lambda(delta_1)/5,a+lambda(delta_1)/5)$. This set is a small union of at most two intervals, contains $a$, but contains many points from $B$. So for $f=chi_A$ the Lebesgue ratio is far from 1.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote









                  It does not hold for rectangles, but holds for rectangles with prescribed directions of edges (that is, for the sets of the form $B=prod_k=1^n [a_k,b_k]$). For bounded unions of intervals it of course does not hold: take two disjoint mesaurable subsets $A,B$ of $mathbbR$ such that $lambda(Acap E)$ and $lambda (Bcap E)$ are positive for any interval $E$. Then for $ain A$ any interval $delta ni a$ contains a density point $bin B$ and you may take the union of an interval $delta_1subset delta$ consisting mostly of points of $B$ and define $B=delta_1 cup (a-lambda(delta_1)/5,a+lambda(delta_1)/5)$. This set is a small union of at most two intervals, contains $a$, but contains many points from $B$. So for $f=chi_A$ the Lebesgue ratio is far from 1.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  It does not hold for rectangles, but holds for rectangles with prescribed directions of edges (that is, for the sets of the form $B=prod_k=1^n [a_k,b_k]$). For bounded unions of intervals it of course does not hold: take two disjoint mesaurable subsets $A,B$ of $mathbbR$ such that $lambda(Acap E)$ and $lambda (Bcap E)$ are positive for any interval $E$. Then for $ain A$ any interval $delta ni a$ contains a density point $bin B$ and you may take the union of an interval $delta_1subset delta$ consisting mostly of points of $B$ and define $B=delta_1 cup (a-lambda(delta_1)/5,a+lambda(delta_1)/5)$. This set is a small union of at most two intervals, contains $a$, but contains many points from $B$. So for $f=chi_A$ the Lebesgue ratio is far from 1.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 19 at 10:58









                  Fedor Petrov

                  46.6k5110217




                  46.6k5110217




















                      up vote
                      3
                      down vote













                      Perhaps Doob's martingale convergence theorem can help. Suppose that $newcommandbRmathbbR$ $Csubset bR^n$ is a cube and $fin L^1 (C)$. Suppose that $newcommandePmathscrP$
                      $$
                      eP_1prec eP_2prec cdots
                      $$

                      is a sequence of finite partitions of $C$ into Borel subsets such that for any $BineP_i+1$ there exists $B'in eP_i$, $B'supset B$. Assume that the $sigma$-algebra generated by
                      $$
                      bigcup_igeq 1eP_i
                      $$

                      coincides with the Borel $sigma$-algebra of $C$. For example this happens if for any open subset $Usubset bR^n$ and any $xin Ccap U$ there exists $igeq 1$ and $B_iineP_i$ such that
                      $$
                      xin B_isubset Ucap C.
                      $$

                      For any $xin C$ there exists a unique sequence of Borel sets $B_i(x)ineP_i$ such that $B_i(x)ni x$, $forall i$. Then Doob's martingale convergence theorem implies that for almost any $xin C$ we have
                      $$
                      f(x) =lim_ito inftyfrac1rm vol;(B_i(x))int_B_i(x) f(y)dy.
                      $$

                      A bit more is true. If we define
                      $$
                      f_i(x)=sum_Bin eP_ifrac1rm vol;(B)left(int_B f(y) dyright) I_B(x),
                      $$

                      where $I_B$ denotes the indicator functio of the subset $B$, then $f_ito f$ in $L^1$ as $itoinfty$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote













                        Perhaps Doob's martingale convergence theorem can help. Suppose that $newcommandbRmathbbR$ $Csubset bR^n$ is a cube and $fin L^1 (C)$. Suppose that $newcommandePmathscrP$
                        $$
                        eP_1prec eP_2prec cdots
                        $$

                        is a sequence of finite partitions of $C$ into Borel subsets such that for any $BineP_i+1$ there exists $B'in eP_i$, $B'supset B$. Assume that the $sigma$-algebra generated by
                        $$
                        bigcup_igeq 1eP_i
                        $$

                        coincides with the Borel $sigma$-algebra of $C$. For example this happens if for any open subset $Usubset bR^n$ and any $xin Ccap U$ there exists $igeq 1$ and $B_iineP_i$ such that
                        $$
                        xin B_isubset Ucap C.
                        $$

                        For any $xin C$ there exists a unique sequence of Borel sets $B_i(x)ineP_i$ such that $B_i(x)ni x$, $forall i$. Then Doob's martingale convergence theorem implies that for almost any $xin C$ we have
                        $$
                        f(x) =lim_ito inftyfrac1rm vol;(B_i(x))int_B_i(x) f(y)dy.
                        $$

                        A bit more is true. If we define
                        $$
                        f_i(x)=sum_Bin eP_ifrac1rm vol;(B)left(int_B f(y) dyright) I_B(x),
                        $$

                        where $I_B$ denotes the indicator functio of the subset $B$, then $f_ito f$ in $L^1$ as $itoinfty$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote









                          Perhaps Doob's martingale convergence theorem can help. Suppose that $newcommandbRmathbbR$ $Csubset bR^n$ is a cube and $fin L^1 (C)$. Suppose that $newcommandePmathscrP$
                          $$
                          eP_1prec eP_2prec cdots
                          $$

                          is a sequence of finite partitions of $C$ into Borel subsets such that for any $BineP_i+1$ there exists $B'in eP_i$, $B'supset B$. Assume that the $sigma$-algebra generated by
                          $$
                          bigcup_igeq 1eP_i
                          $$

                          coincides with the Borel $sigma$-algebra of $C$. For example this happens if for any open subset $Usubset bR^n$ and any $xin Ccap U$ there exists $igeq 1$ and $B_iineP_i$ such that
                          $$
                          xin B_isubset Ucap C.
                          $$

                          For any $xin C$ there exists a unique sequence of Borel sets $B_i(x)ineP_i$ such that $B_i(x)ni x$, $forall i$. Then Doob's martingale convergence theorem implies that for almost any $xin C$ we have
                          $$
                          f(x) =lim_ito inftyfrac1rm vol;(B_i(x))int_B_i(x) f(y)dy.
                          $$

                          A bit more is true. If we define
                          $$
                          f_i(x)=sum_Bin eP_ifrac1rm vol;(B)left(int_B f(y) dyright) I_B(x),
                          $$

                          where $I_B$ denotes the indicator functio of the subset $B$, then $f_ito f$ in $L^1$ as $itoinfty$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          Perhaps Doob's martingale convergence theorem can help. Suppose that $newcommandbRmathbbR$ $Csubset bR^n$ is a cube and $fin L^1 (C)$. Suppose that $newcommandePmathscrP$
                          $$
                          eP_1prec eP_2prec cdots
                          $$

                          is a sequence of finite partitions of $C$ into Borel subsets such that for any $BineP_i+1$ there exists $B'in eP_i$, $B'supset B$. Assume that the $sigma$-algebra generated by
                          $$
                          bigcup_igeq 1eP_i
                          $$

                          coincides with the Borel $sigma$-algebra of $C$. For example this happens if for any open subset $Usubset bR^n$ and any $xin Ccap U$ there exists $igeq 1$ and $B_iineP_i$ such that
                          $$
                          xin B_isubset Ucap C.
                          $$

                          For any $xin C$ there exists a unique sequence of Borel sets $B_i(x)ineP_i$ such that $B_i(x)ni x$, $forall i$. Then Doob's martingale convergence theorem implies that for almost any $xin C$ we have
                          $$
                          f(x) =lim_ito inftyfrac1rm vol;(B_i(x))int_B_i(x) f(y)dy.
                          $$

                          A bit more is true. If we define
                          $$
                          f_i(x)=sum_Bin eP_ifrac1rm vol;(B)left(int_B f(y) dyright) I_B(x),
                          $$

                          where $I_B$ denotes the indicator functio of the subset $B$, then $f_ito f$ in $L^1$ as $itoinfty$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














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                          edited Nov 19 at 13:07

























                          answered Nov 19 at 10:24









                          Liviu Nicolaescu

                          25k256108




                          25k256108



























                               

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