Show that the following sequence converges. Please Critique my proof.

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP












9












$begingroup$


The problem is as follows:




Let $a_n$ be a sequence of nonnegative numbers such that
$$
a_n+1leq a_n+frac(-1)^nn.
$$

Show that $a_n$ converges.




My (wrong) proof:



Notice that
$$
|a_n+1-a_n|leq left|frac(-1)^nnright|leqfrac1n
$$

and since it is known that $frac1nrightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$. We see that we can arbitarily bound, $|a_n+1-a_n|$. Thus, $a_n$ converges.



My question:
This is a question from a comprehensive exam I found and am using to review.



Should I argue that we should select $N$ so that $n>N$ implies $left|frac1nright|<epsilon$ as well?



Notes: Currently working on the proof.










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$endgroup$







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Falrach
    Mar 1 at 21:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_n+1 - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_m - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
    $endgroup$
    – Maximilian Janisch
    Mar 1 at 22:49







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is a duplicate, but I’m too lazy to find the original...
    $endgroup$
    – Shalop
    Mar 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    @Shalop if you do find the original, then please tell me.
    $endgroup$
    – Darel
    Mar 2 at 16:35















9












$begingroup$


The problem is as follows:




Let $a_n$ be a sequence of nonnegative numbers such that
$$
a_n+1leq a_n+frac(-1)^nn.
$$

Show that $a_n$ converges.




My (wrong) proof:



Notice that
$$
|a_n+1-a_n|leq left|frac(-1)^nnright|leqfrac1n
$$

and since it is known that $frac1nrightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$. We see that we can arbitarily bound, $|a_n+1-a_n|$. Thus, $a_n$ converges.



My question:
This is a question from a comprehensive exam I found and am using to review.



Should I argue that we should select $N$ so that $n>N$ implies $left|frac1nright|<epsilon$ as well?



Notes: Currently working on the proof.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Falrach
    Mar 1 at 21:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_n+1 - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_m - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
    $endgroup$
    – Maximilian Janisch
    Mar 1 at 22:49







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is a duplicate, but I’m too lazy to find the original...
    $endgroup$
    – Shalop
    Mar 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    @Shalop if you do find the original, then please tell me.
    $endgroup$
    – Darel
    Mar 2 at 16:35













9












9








9


1



$begingroup$


The problem is as follows:




Let $a_n$ be a sequence of nonnegative numbers such that
$$
a_n+1leq a_n+frac(-1)^nn.
$$

Show that $a_n$ converges.




My (wrong) proof:



Notice that
$$
|a_n+1-a_n|leq left|frac(-1)^nnright|leqfrac1n
$$

and since it is known that $frac1nrightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$. We see that we can arbitarily bound, $|a_n+1-a_n|$. Thus, $a_n$ converges.



My question:
This is a question from a comprehensive exam I found and am using to review.



Should I argue that we should select $N$ so that $n>N$ implies $left|frac1nright|<epsilon$ as well?



Notes: Currently working on the proof.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The problem is as follows:




Let $a_n$ be a sequence of nonnegative numbers such that
$$
a_n+1leq a_n+frac(-1)^nn.
$$

Show that $a_n$ converges.




My (wrong) proof:



Notice that
$$
|a_n+1-a_n|leq left|frac(-1)^nnright|leqfrac1n
$$

and since it is known that $frac1nrightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$. We see that we can arbitarily bound, $|a_n+1-a_n|$. Thus, $a_n$ converges.



My question:
This is a question from a comprehensive exam I found and am using to review.



Should I argue that we should select $N$ so that $n>N$ implies $left|frac1nright|<epsilon$ as well?



Notes: Currently working on the proof.







real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence fake-proofs






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 2 at 1:37







Darel

















asked Mar 1 at 21:07









DarelDarel

1249




1249







  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Falrach
    Mar 1 at 21:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_n+1 - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_m - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
    $endgroup$
    – Maximilian Janisch
    Mar 1 at 22:49







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is a duplicate, but I’m too lazy to find the original...
    $endgroup$
    – Shalop
    Mar 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    @Shalop if you do find the original, then please tell me.
    $endgroup$
    – Darel
    Mar 2 at 16:35












  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Falrach
    Mar 1 at 21:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_n+1 - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_m - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
    $endgroup$
    – Maximilian Janisch
    Mar 1 at 22:49







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is a duplicate, but I’m too lazy to find the original...
    $endgroup$
    – Shalop
    Mar 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    @Shalop if you do find the original, then please tell me.
    $endgroup$
    – Darel
    Mar 2 at 16:35







4




4




$begingroup$
Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Falrach
Mar 1 at 21:13




$begingroup$
Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_i=1^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Falrach
Mar 1 at 21:13




1




1




$begingroup$
Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_n+1 - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_m - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
$endgroup$
– Maximilian Janisch
Mar 1 at 22:49





$begingroup$
Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_n+1 - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_m - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
$endgroup$
– Maximilian Janisch
Mar 1 at 22:49





1




1




$begingroup$
This is a duplicate, but I’m too lazy to find the original...
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Mar 2 at 14:53




$begingroup$
This is a duplicate, but I’m too lazy to find the original...
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Mar 2 at 14:53












$begingroup$
@Shalop if you do find the original, then please tell me.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Mar 2 at 16:35




$begingroup$
@Shalop if you do find the original, then please tell me.
$endgroup$
– Darel
Mar 2 at 16:35










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_k=1^n-1 frac(-1)^k-1k$. Then



$$ b_n+1
= a_n+1 + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
leq a_n + frac(-1)^nn + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
= b_n, $$



which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_k=1^infty frac(-1)^k-1k$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_n+1le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_k=1^n-1c_k$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mars Plastic
    Mar 1 at 23:04











  • $begingroup$
    @MarsPlastic The argument works even if $(a_n)$ is not bounded below, in that case $a_n to -infty$ follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Mar 2 at 7:28










  • $begingroup$
    @MarsPlastic: Btw, thank you for pointing out the flaw in my answer. I was able to fix that, but this answer is so elegant and much simpler, that I deleted mine again.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Mar 2 at 8:04






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is really an elegant way. Unfortunately I just got it done by brute force.
    $endgroup$
    – Falrach
    Mar 2 at 8:36


















1












$begingroup$

Define $b_k := a_2k+1$. Then
$$b_k leq a_2k + (-1)^2kfrac12k leq b_k-1 + (frac12k - frac12k-1) leq b_k-1$$
Since $b_k$ is non-negative and non-increasing: $b_k to b$.
Suppose $a_n nrightarrow b$. Then there exists an $varepsilon > 0 $ s.t. for infinitely many $n$ holds $|a_2n - b| > varepsilon$.
Assume that $|a_2m+1-a_m| > fracvarepsilon2$ for infinitely many $m$. Then, since $a_2m+1- a_m leq frac12m$ we have that
beginalign
a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2
endalign

for infinitely many $m$. Let $M := m geq 1 : a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2 text is fulfilled for m $
beginalign*
d_m := 1_M (m)
endalign*

This implies
beginalign*
0 leq a_2m+1 = a_1 + sum_k=1^2m (a_k+1 - a_k ) = a_1 + sum_k=1^m (a_2k+1 - a_2k) + sum_k=1^m (a_2k - a_2k-1) \
leq a_1 + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k frac12k- fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k-1frac12k-1 to a_1 - sum_k=1^infty fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_i=1^infty (-1)^i frac1i = - infty
endalign*

since $|M| = infty$ and the last series converges. This is a contradiction.
Therefore we have that there exists $Kgeq 1$ s.t. for all $kgeq K$ it holds: $|a_2k+1 - a_k| leq fracvarepsilon2$. We can conclude that
beginalign*
|a2n+1 - b| geq |a_2n - b| - |a_2n+1 - a_n| geq varepsilon - fracvarepsilon2 = fracvarepsilon2
endalign*

for infinitely $n geq K$. Contradiction. Thus $a_n to b$.






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5












    $begingroup$

    Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_k=1^n-1 frac(-1)^k-1k$. Then



    $$ b_n+1
    = a_n+1 + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
    leq a_n + frac(-1)^nn + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
    = b_n, $$



    which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_k=1^infty frac(-1)^k-1k$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$








    • 3




      $begingroup$
      Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_n+1le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_k=1^n-1c_k$.
      $endgroup$
      – Mars Plastic
      Mar 1 at 23:04











    • $begingroup$
      @MarsPlastic The argument works even if $(a_n)$ is not bounded below, in that case $a_n to -infty$ follows.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Mar 2 at 7:28










    • $begingroup$
      @MarsPlastic: Btw, thank you for pointing out the flaw in my answer. I was able to fix that, but this answer is so elegant and much simpler, that I deleted mine again.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Mar 2 at 8:04






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is really an elegant way. Unfortunately I just got it done by brute force.
      $endgroup$
      – Falrach
      Mar 2 at 8:36















    5












    $begingroup$

    Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_k=1^n-1 frac(-1)^k-1k$. Then



    $$ b_n+1
    = a_n+1 + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
    leq a_n + frac(-1)^nn + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
    = b_n, $$



    which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_k=1^infty frac(-1)^k-1k$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$








    • 3




      $begingroup$
      Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_n+1le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_k=1^n-1c_k$.
      $endgroup$
      – Mars Plastic
      Mar 1 at 23:04











    • $begingroup$
      @MarsPlastic The argument works even if $(a_n)$ is not bounded below, in that case $a_n to -infty$ follows.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Mar 2 at 7:28










    • $begingroup$
      @MarsPlastic: Btw, thank you for pointing out the flaw in my answer. I was able to fix that, but this answer is so elegant and much simpler, that I deleted mine again.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Mar 2 at 8:04






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is really an elegant way. Unfortunately I just got it done by brute force.
      $endgroup$
      – Falrach
      Mar 2 at 8:36













    5












    5








    5





    $begingroup$

    Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_k=1^n-1 frac(-1)^k-1k$. Then



    $$ b_n+1
    = a_n+1 + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
    leq a_n + frac(-1)^nn + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
    = b_n, $$



    which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_k=1^infty frac(-1)^k-1k$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_k=1^n-1 frac(-1)^k-1k$. Then



    $$ b_n+1
    = a_n+1 + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
    leq a_n + frac(-1)^nn + sum_k=1^n frac(-1)^k-1k
    = b_n, $$



    which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_k=1^infty frac(-1)^k-1k$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Mar 1 at 22:47









    Sangchul LeeSangchul Lee

    96.2k12171282




    96.2k12171282







    • 3




      $begingroup$
      Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_n+1le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_k=1^n-1c_k$.
      $endgroup$
      – Mars Plastic
      Mar 1 at 23:04











    • $begingroup$
      @MarsPlastic The argument works even if $(a_n)$ is not bounded below, in that case $a_n to -infty$ follows.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Mar 2 at 7:28










    • $begingroup$
      @MarsPlastic: Btw, thank you for pointing out the flaw in my answer. I was able to fix that, but this answer is so elegant and much simpler, that I deleted mine again.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Mar 2 at 8:04






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is really an elegant way. Unfortunately I just got it done by brute force.
      $endgroup$
      – Falrach
      Mar 2 at 8:36












    • 3




      $begingroup$
      Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_n+1le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_k=1^n-1c_k$.
      $endgroup$
      – Mars Plastic
      Mar 1 at 23:04











    • $begingroup$
      @MarsPlastic The argument works even if $(a_n)$ is not bounded below, in that case $a_n to -infty$ follows.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Mar 2 at 7:28










    • $begingroup$
      @MarsPlastic: Btw, thank you for pointing out the flaw in my answer. I was able to fix that, but this answer is so elegant and much simpler, that I deleted mine again.
      $endgroup$
      – Martin R
      Mar 2 at 8:04






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is really an elegant way. Unfortunately I just got it done by brute force.
      $endgroup$
      – Falrach
      Mar 2 at 8:36







    3




    3




    $begingroup$
    Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_n+1le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_k=1^n-1c_k$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mars Plastic
    Mar 1 at 23:04





    $begingroup$
    Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_n+1le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_k=1^n-1c_k$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mars Plastic
    Mar 1 at 23:04













    $begingroup$
    @MarsPlastic The argument works even if $(a_n)$ is not bounded below, in that case $a_n to -infty$ follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Mar 2 at 7:28




    $begingroup$
    @MarsPlastic The argument works even if $(a_n)$ is not bounded below, in that case $a_n to -infty$ follows.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Mar 2 at 7:28












    $begingroup$
    @MarsPlastic: Btw, thank you for pointing out the flaw in my answer. I was able to fix that, but this answer is so elegant and much simpler, that I deleted mine again.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Mar 2 at 8:04




    $begingroup$
    @MarsPlastic: Btw, thank you for pointing out the flaw in my answer. I was able to fix that, but this answer is so elegant and much simpler, that I deleted mine again.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Mar 2 at 8:04




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    This is really an elegant way. Unfortunately I just got it done by brute force.
    $endgroup$
    – Falrach
    Mar 2 at 8:36




    $begingroup$
    This is really an elegant way. Unfortunately I just got it done by brute force.
    $endgroup$
    – Falrach
    Mar 2 at 8:36











    1












    $begingroup$

    Define $b_k := a_2k+1$. Then
    $$b_k leq a_2k + (-1)^2kfrac12k leq b_k-1 + (frac12k - frac12k-1) leq b_k-1$$
    Since $b_k$ is non-negative and non-increasing: $b_k to b$.
    Suppose $a_n nrightarrow b$. Then there exists an $varepsilon > 0 $ s.t. for infinitely many $n$ holds $|a_2n - b| > varepsilon$.
    Assume that $|a_2m+1-a_m| > fracvarepsilon2$ for infinitely many $m$. Then, since $a_2m+1- a_m leq frac12m$ we have that
    beginalign
    a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2
    endalign

    for infinitely many $m$. Let $M := m geq 1 : a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2 text is fulfilled for m $
    beginalign*
    d_m := 1_M (m)
    endalign*

    This implies
    beginalign*
    0 leq a_2m+1 = a_1 + sum_k=1^2m (a_k+1 - a_k ) = a_1 + sum_k=1^m (a_2k+1 - a_2k) + sum_k=1^m (a_2k - a_2k-1) \
    leq a_1 + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k frac12k- fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k-1frac12k-1 to a_1 - sum_k=1^infty fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_i=1^infty (-1)^i frac1i = - infty
    endalign*

    since $|M| = infty$ and the last series converges. This is a contradiction.
    Therefore we have that there exists $Kgeq 1$ s.t. for all $kgeq K$ it holds: $|a_2k+1 - a_k| leq fracvarepsilon2$. We can conclude that
    beginalign*
    |a2n+1 - b| geq |a_2n - b| - |a_2n+1 - a_n| geq varepsilon - fracvarepsilon2 = fracvarepsilon2
    endalign*

    for infinitely $n geq K$. Contradiction. Thus $a_n to b$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      1












      $begingroup$

      Define $b_k := a_2k+1$. Then
      $$b_k leq a_2k + (-1)^2kfrac12k leq b_k-1 + (frac12k - frac12k-1) leq b_k-1$$
      Since $b_k$ is non-negative and non-increasing: $b_k to b$.
      Suppose $a_n nrightarrow b$. Then there exists an $varepsilon > 0 $ s.t. for infinitely many $n$ holds $|a_2n - b| > varepsilon$.
      Assume that $|a_2m+1-a_m| > fracvarepsilon2$ for infinitely many $m$. Then, since $a_2m+1- a_m leq frac12m$ we have that
      beginalign
      a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2
      endalign

      for infinitely many $m$. Let $M := m geq 1 : a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2 text is fulfilled for m $
      beginalign*
      d_m := 1_M (m)
      endalign*

      This implies
      beginalign*
      0 leq a_2m+1 = a_1 + sum_k=1^2m (a_k+1 - a_k ) = a_1 + sum_k=1^m (a_2k+1 - a_2k) + sum_k=1^m (a_2k - a_2k-1) \
      leq a_1 + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k frac12k- fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k-1frac12k-1 to a_1 - sum_k=1^infty fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_i=1^infty (-1)^i frac1i = - infty
      endalign*

      since $|M| = infty$ and the last series converges. This is a contradiction.
      Therefore we have that there exists $Kgeq 1$ s.t. for all $kgeq K$ it holds: $|a_2k+1 - a_k| leq fracvarepsilon2$. We can conclude that
      beginalign*
      |a2n+1 - b| geq |a_2n - b| - |a_2n+1 - a_n| geq varepsilon - fracvarepsilon2 = fracvarepsilon2
      endalign*

      for infinitely $n geq K$. Contradiction. Thus $a_n to b$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Define $b_k := a_2k+1$. Then
        $$b_k leq a_2k + (-1)^2kfrac12k leq b_k-1 + (frac12k - frac12k-1) leq b_k-1$$
        Since $b_k$ is non-negative and non-increasing: $b_k to b$.
        Suppose $a_n nrightarrow b$. Then there exists an $varepsilon > 0 $ s.t. for infinitely many $n$ holds $|a_2n - b| > varepsilon$.
        Assume that $|a_2m+1-a_m| > fracvarepsilon2$ for infinitely many $m$. Then, since $a_2m+1- a_m leq frac12m$ we have that
        beginalign
        a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2
        endalign

        for infinitely many $m$. Let $M := m geq 1 : a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2 text is fulfilled for m $
        beginalign*
        d_m := 1_M (m)
        endalign*

        This implies
        beginalign*
        0 leq a_2m+1 = a_1 + sum_k=1^2m (a_k+1 - a_k ) = a_1 + sum_k=1^m (a_2k+1 - a_2k) + sum_k=1^m (a_2k - a_2k-1) \
        leq a_1 + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k frac12k- fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k-1frac12k-1 to a_1 - sum_k=1^infty fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_i=1^infty (-1)^i frac1i = - infty
        endalign*

        since $|M| = infty$ and the last series converges. This is a contradiction.
        Therefore we have that there exists $Kgeq 1$ s.t. for all $kgeq K$ it holds: $|a_2k+1 - a_k| leq fracvarepsilon2$. We can conclude that
        beginalign*
        |a2n+1 - b| geq |a_2n - b| - |a_2n+1 - a_n| geq varepsilon - fracvarepsilon2 = fracvarepsilon2
        endalign*

        for infinitely $n geq K$. Contradiction. Thus $a_n to b$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Define $b_k := a_2k+1$. Then
        $$b_k leq a_2k + (-1)^2kfrac12k leq b_k-1 + (frac12k - frac12k-1) leq b_k-1$$
        Since $b_k$ is non-negative and non-increasing: $b_k to b$.
        Suppose $a_n nrightarrow b$. Then there exists an $varepsilon > 0 $ s.t. for infinitely many $n$ holds $|a_2n - b| > varepsilon$.
        Assume that $|a_2m+1-a_m| > fracvarepsilon2$ for infinitely many $m$. Then, since $a_2m+1- a_m leq frac12m$ we have that
        beginalign
        a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2
        endalign

        for infinitely many $m$. Let $M := m geq 1 : a_2m+1 - a_m < - fracvarepsilon2 text is fulfilled for m $
        beginalign*
        d_m := 1_M (m)
        endalign*

        This implies
        beginalign*
        0 leq a_2m+1 = a_1 + sum_k=1^2m (a_k+1 - a_k ) = a_1 + sum_k=1^m (a_2k+1 - a_2k) + sum_k=1^m (a_2k - a_2k-1) \
        leq a_1 + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k frac12k- fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_k=1^m (-1)^2k-1frac12k-1 to a_1 - sum_k=1^infty fracvarepsilon2 d_k + sum_i=1^infty (-1)^i frac1i = - infty
        endalign*

        since $|M| = infty$ and the last series converges. This is a contradiction.
        Therefore we have that there exists $Kgeq 1$ s.t. for all $kgeq K$ it holds: $|a_2k+1 - a_k| leq fracvarepsilon2$. We can conclude that
        beginalign*
        |a2n+1 - b| geq |a_2n - b| - |a_2n+1 - a_n| geq varepsilon - fracvarepsilon2 = fracvarepsilon2
        endalign*

        for infinitely $n geq K$. Contradiction. Thus $a_n to b$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 2 at 1:11









        FalrachFalrach

        1,745225




        1,745225



























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