Integral inequality of length of curve

Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbbR$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.
source: This is from TIFR GS stage 2.
I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclusion.Geometrically its true since distance between two point $(a,f(a))$ & $(b,f(b))$ is greater or equal to any arc length of same endpoints.
real-analysis inequality arc-length
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbbR$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.
source: This is from TIFR GS stage 2.
I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclusion.Geometrically its true since distance between two point $(a,f(a))$ & $(b,f(b))$ is greater or equal to any arc length of same endpoints.
real-analysis inequality arc-length
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
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– Conrad
Mar 2 at 20:49
1
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@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
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– Matematleta
Mar 2 at 21:32
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This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 3 at 0:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbbR$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.
source: This is from TIFR GS stage 2.
I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclusion.Geometrically its true since distance between two point $(a,f(a))$ & $(b,f(b))$ is greater or equal to any arc length of same endpoints.
real-analysis inequality arc-length
$endgroup$
Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbbR$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.
source: This is from TIFR GS stage 2.
I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclusion.Geometrically its true since distance between two point $(a,f(a))$ & $(b,f(b))$ is greater or equal to any arc length of same endpoints.
real-analysis inequality arc-length
real-analysis inequality arc-length
edited Mar 13 at 10:31
RAM_3R
asked Mar 2 at 20:14
RAM_3RRAM_3R
616215
616215
3
$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 2 at 20:49
1
$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 2 at 21:32
$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 3 at 0:22
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 2 at 20:49
1
$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 2 at 21:32
$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 3 at 0:22
3
3
$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 2 at 20:49
$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 2 at 20:49
1
1
$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 2 at 21:32
$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 2 at 21:32
$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 3 at 0:22
$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 3 at 0:22
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
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Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,
$$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$
Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.
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1
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This really nice!
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– Nastar
Mar 2 at 23:41
add a comment |
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Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
$$
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
$$ Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
$$beginalign*
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
endalign*$$ and
$$
int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
$$ Now, the desired inequality follows.
Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.
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1
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(+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Mar 3 at 0:12
$begingroup$
Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 3 at 0:21
1
$begingroup$
This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 3 at 1:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.
If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:
Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.
The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points
$(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)
And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.
But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.
To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,
$(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$
Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.
For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.
Subsitute it into the integral:
$l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.
Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,
$0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.
After an integration by parts, we get
$dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.
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Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.
Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$
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4 Answers
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
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$begingroup$
Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,
$$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$
Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
This really nice!
$endgroup$
– Nastar
Mar 2 at 23:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,
$$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$
Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
This really nice!
$endgroup$
– Nastar
Mar 2 at 23:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,
$$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$
Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.
$endgroup$
Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,
$$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$
Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.
answered Mar 2 at 23:30
Sangchul LeeSangchul Lee
96.3k12171282
96.3k12171282
1
$begingroup$
This really nice!
$endgroup$
– Nastar
Mar 2 at 23:41
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
This really nice!
$endgroup$
– Nastar
Mar 2 at 23:41
1
1
$begingroup$
This really nice!
$endgroup$
– Nastar
Mar 2 at 23:41
$begingroup$
This really nice!
$endgroup$
– Nastar
Mar 2 at 23:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
$$
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
$$ Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
$$beginalign*
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
endalign*$$ and
$$
int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
$$ Now, the desired inequality follows.
Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Mar 3 at 0:12
$begingroup$
Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 3 at 0:21
1
$begingroup$
This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 3 at 1:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
$$
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
$$ Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
$$beginalign*
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
endalign*$$ and
$$
int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
$$ Now, the desired inequality follows.
Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Mar 3 at 0:12
$begingroup$
Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 3 at 0:21
1
$begingroup$
This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 3 at 1:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
$$
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
$$ Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
$$beginalign*
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
endalign*$$ and
$$
int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
$$ Now, the desired inequality follows.
Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.
$endgroup$
Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
$$
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
$$ Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
$$beginalign*
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
endalign*$$ and
$$
int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
$$ Now, the desired inequality follows.
Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.
edited Mar 3 at 7:15
answered Mar 3 at 0:08
SongSong
18.5k21651
18.5k21651
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Mar 3 at 0:12
$begingroup$
Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 3 at 0:21
1
$begingroup$
This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 3 at 1:48
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Mar 3 at 0:12
$begingroup$
Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 3 at 0:21
1
$begingroup$
This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 3 at 1:48
1
1
$begingroup$
(+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Mar 3 at 0:12
$begingroup$
(+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Sangchul Lee
Mar 3 at 0:12
$begingroup$
Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 3 at 0:21
$begingroup$
Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 3 at 0:21
1
1
$begingroup$
This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 3 at 1:48
$begingroup$
This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 3 at 1:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.
If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:
Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.
The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points
$(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)
And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.
But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.
To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,
$(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$
Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.
For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.
Subsitute it into the integral:
$l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.
Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,
$0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.
After an integration by parts, we get
$dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.
If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:
Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.
The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points
$(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)
And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.
But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.
To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,
$(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$
Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.
For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.
Subsitute it into the integral:
$l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.
Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,
$0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.
After an integration by parts, we get
$dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.
If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:
Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.
The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points
$(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)
And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.
But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.
To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,
$(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$
Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.
For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.
Subsitute it into the integral:
$l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.
Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,
$0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.
After an integration by parts, we get
$dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.
$endgroup$
An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.
If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:
Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.
The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points
$(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)
And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.
But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.
To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,
$(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$
Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.
For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.
Subsitute it into the integral:
$l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.
Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,
$0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.
After an integration by parts, we get
$dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.
edited Mar 2 at 23:24
answered Mar 2 at 21:43
MatematletaMatematleta
11.8k21020
11.8k21020
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$begingroup$
Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.
Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.
Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.
Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$
$endgroup$
Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.
Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$
answered Mar 2 at 20:58
se2018se2018
874
874
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 2 at 20:49
1
$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 2 at 21:32
$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 3 at 0:22