Integral inequality of length of curve

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Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbbR$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.




source: This is from TIFR GS stage 2.



I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclusion.Geometrically its true since distance between two point $(a,f(a))$ & $(b,f(b))$ is greater or equal to any arc length of same endpoints.










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  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 2 at 20:49







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Mar 2 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 3 at 0:22















5












$begingroup$


Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbbR$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.




source: This is from TIFR GS stage 2.



I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclusion.Geometrically its true since distance between two point $(a,f(a))$ & $(b,f(b))$ is greater or equal to any arc length of same endpoints.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 2 at 20:49







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Mar 2 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 3 at 0:22













5












5








5


2



$begingroup$


Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbbR$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.




source: This is from TIFR GS stage 2.



I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclusion.Geometrically its true since distance between two point $(a,f(a))$ & $(b,f(b))$ is greater or equal to any arc length of same endpoints.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbbR$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.




source: This is from TIFR GS stage 2.



I think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try Cauchy-Schwarz inequality but nothing conclusion.Geometrically its true since distance between two point $(a,f(a))$ & $(b,f(b))$ is greater or equal to any arc length of same endpoints.







real-analysis inequality arc-length






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edited Mar 13 at 10:31







RAM_3R

















asked Mar 2 at 20:14









RAM_3RRAM_3R

616215




616215







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 2 at 20:49







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Mar 2 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 3 at 0:22












  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 2 at 20:49







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Mar 2 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    Mar 3 at 0:22







3




3




$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 2 at 20:49





$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 2 at 20:49





1




1




$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 2 at 21:32




$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Mar 2 at 21:32












$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 3 at 0:22




$begingroup$
This is classic stuff - can do it locally using Taylor approximation so make the curve piecewise linear and use elementary geometry or as done in various answers with various inequalities
$endgroup$
– Conrad
Mar 3 at 0:22










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

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16












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Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



$$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$



Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This really nice!
    $endgroup$
    – Nastar
    Mar 2 at 23:41


















13












$begingroup$

Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
$$
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
$$
Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
$$beginalign*
left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
endalign*$$
and
$$
int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
$$
Now, the desired inequality follows.

Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Mar 3 at 0:12











  • $begingroup$
    Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Mar 3 at 0:21







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Mar 3 at 1:48


















2












$begingroup$

An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.



The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



$(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.



But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.



To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



$(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$



Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



Subsitute it into the integral:



$l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.



Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



$0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.



After an integration by parts, we get



$dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






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    0












    $begingroup$

    Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



    Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      16












      $begingroup$

      Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



      $$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$



      Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        Mar 2 at 23:41















      16












      $begingroup$

      Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



      $$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$



      Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        Mar 2 at 23:41













      16












      16








      16





      $begingroup$

      Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



      $$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$



      Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt1+y^2$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



      $$ frac1b-a int_a^b sqrt1 + f'(x)^2 , mathrmdx geq sqrt1 + left(frac1b-aint_a^b f'(x) , mathrmdxright)^2 = sqrt1 + left(fracf(b) - f(a)b-a right)^2. $$



      Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Mar 2 at 23:30









      Sangchul LeeSangchul Lee

      96.3k12171282




      96.3k12171282







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        Mar 2 at 23:41












      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        Mar 2 at 23:41







      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      This really nice!
      $endgroup$
      – Nastar
      Mar 2 at 23:41




      $begingroup$
      This really nice!
      $endgroup$
      – Nastar
      Mar 2 at 23:41











      13












      $begingroup$

      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$beginalign*
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
      endalign*$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.

      Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
        $endgroup$
        – Sangchul Lee
        Mar 3 at 0:12











      • $begingroup$
        Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
        $endgroup$
        – Song
        Mar 3 at 0:21







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
        $endgroup$
        – Matematleta
        Mar 3 at 1:48















      13












      $begingroup$

      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$beginalign*
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
      endalign*$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.

      Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
        $endgroup$
        – Sangchul Lee
        Mar 3 at 0:12











      • $begingroup$
        Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
        $endgroup$
        – Song
        Mar 3 at 0:21







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
        $endgroup$
        – Matematleta
        Mar 3 at 1:48













      13












      13








      13





      $begingroup$

      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$beginalign*
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
      endalign*$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.

      Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$beginalign*
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2
      endalign*$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'(x))^2 dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.

      Note: The equality holds when $textarg(phi(x))$ is constant, that is, $fracf'(x)1=f'(x)$ is constant.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Mar 3 at 7:15

























      answered Mar 3 at 0:08









      SongSong

      18.5k21651




      18.5k21651







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
        $endgroup$
        – Sangchul Lee
        Mar 3 at 0:12











      • $begingroup$
        Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
        $endgroup$
        – Song
        Mar 3 at 0:21







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
        $endgroup$
        – Matematleta
        Mar 3 at 1:48












      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
        $endgroup$
        – Sangchul Lee
        Mar 3 at 0:12











      • $begingroup$
        Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
        $endgroup$
        – Song
        Mar 3 at 0:21







      • 1




        $begingroup$
        This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
        $endgroup$
        – Matematleta
        Mar 3 at 1:48







      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
      $endgroup$
      – Sangchul Lee
      Mar 3 at 0:12





      $begingroup$
      (+1) Amazing, this should the accepted answer! Anyway, is there any reason to work with $mathbbC$ rather than $mathbbR^2$ with $phi(x) = gamma'(x)$ and $gamma(x) = (x, f(x))$?
      $endgroup$
      – Sangchul Lee
      Mar 3 at 0:12













      $begingroup$
      Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
      $endgroup$
      – Song
      Mar 3 at 0:21





      $begingroup$
      Umm, sorry, I see no specific reason, since both are essentially the same version of the triangle inequality in integral form. But I just prefered $Bbb C$-version because it can be easily derived from the real triangle inequality; if $f$ is real-valued, integrable, $pm int_a^b fle int_a^b |f|$. Thank you!
      $endgroup$
      – Song
      Mar 3 at 0:21





      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
      $endgroup$
      – Matematleta
      Mar 3 at 1:48




      $begingroup$
      This is slick. I wish I could upvote this answer twice....
      $endgroup$
      – Matematleta
      Mar 3 at 1:48











      2












      $begingroup$

      An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



      If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



      Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.



      The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



      $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



      And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.



      But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.



      To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



      $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$



      Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



      For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



      Subsitute it into the integral:



      $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.



      Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



      $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.



      After an integration by parts, we get



      $dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$

















        2












        $begingroup$

        An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



        If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



        Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.



        The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



        $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



        And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.



        But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.



        To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



        $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$



        Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



        For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



        Subsitute it into the integral:



        $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.



        Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



        $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.



        After an integration by parts, we get



        $dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



          If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



          Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.



          The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



          $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



          And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.



          But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.



          To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



          $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$



          Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



          For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



          Subsitute it into the integral:



          $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.



          Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



          $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.



          After an integration by parts, we get



          $dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt1-f'(x)ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



          If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



          Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P=a,x_1,cdots,x_n-2,b$.



          The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



          $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



          And this is true for $textitany$ partition $P$.



          But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt1+fracDelta y_iDelta x_iDelta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt1+f'(x)$.



          To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)dx- sum_isqrt1+f'(c_i)Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_i-1$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



          $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt1+f'(c)Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt1+f'(x)+epsilon.$



          Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



          For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



          Subsitute it into the integral:



          $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt1+(f'+tphi')^2dx$.



          Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



          $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfracf'phi'sqrt1+(f')^2dx$.



          After an integration by parts, we get



          $dfracf'sqrt1+(f')^2 = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Mar 2 at 23:24

























          answered Mar 2 at 21:43









          MatematletaMatematleta

          11.8k21020




          11.8k21020





















              0












              $begingroup$

              Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



              Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                  Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                  Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt1+(f'(x))^2,dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Mar 2 at 20:58









                  se2018se2018

                  874




                  874



























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