In Simon's algorithm, why is $f$ one-to-one if (and only if) $s=0^n$?

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$begingroup$


I'm dealing with Simon's algorithm a bit and "stumbled" upon something called for the algorithm. It is said that if the period is $s = 0^n$, then it is an injective function, that is, a 1 to 1 function. How can you show that this is so?



Then I would be interested. Moreover, if that is not the case, so $s neq 0^n$, then why is it a 2 to 1 function?










share|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    3












    $begingroup$


    I'm dealing with Simon's algorithm a bit and "stumbled" upon something called for the algorithm. It is said that if the period is $s = 0^n$, then it is an injective function, that is, a 1 to 1 function. How can you show that this is so?



    Then I would be interested. Moreover, if that is not the case, so $s neq 0^n$, then why is it a 2 to 1 function?










    share|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      I'm dealing with Simon's algorithm a bit and "stumbled" upon something called for the algorithm. It is said that if the period is $s = 0^n$, then it is an injective function, that is, a 1 to 1 function. How can you show that this is so?



      Then I would be interested. Moreover, if that is not the case, so $s neq 0^n$, then why is it a 2 to 1 function?










      share|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I'm dealing with Simon's algorithm a bit and "stumbled" upon something called for the algorithm. It is said that if the period is $s = 0^n$, then it is an injective function, that is, a 1 to 1 function. How can you show that this is so?



      Then I would be interested. Moreover, if that is not the case, so $s neq 0^n$, then why is it a 2 to 1 function?







      algorithm simons-algorithm






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Feb 7 at 10:36









      glS

      4,105639




      4,105639










      asked Feb 4 at 16:17









      P_GateP_Gate

      935




      935




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          This is basically the definition of the type of function that you apply Simon's algorithm to. You are required to have a function $f(x)$ such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(y)
          $$

          if and only if $xoplus y=0$ or $s$.



          Hence, if $s$ is all zeros, the outcomes are all unique: if $f(x)=f(y)$ then $x=yoplus 000ldots 0$, but bitwise addition modulo with 0 doesn't change the bit values, so $x=y$.



          On the other hand, if $s$ is non-zero, there are exactly two values that give the same value of $f(x)$ since $xoplus00ldots 0=x$, just leaving the distinct $y=xoplus s$.




          To add, following a comment. I suspect we need to go further back and understand the notation better. There is a function $f(x)$. It accepts, as an argument, a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as a variable $x$ (we write $xin0,1^n$ as a shorthand for conveying it's made up of $n$ bit values). The answer is a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as $y=f(x)$. We are promised that $a$, also a sequence of $n$ bit values exists such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(xoplus a).
          $$

          The calculation $xoplus a$ has a very specific meaning; we take each bit of $x$ (call the $i^th$ bit $x_i$) and each bit of $x$ and return the sequence where they have been added together modulo 2:
          $$
          x_ioplus a_i=x_itext XOR a_i=x_i+a_itext mod 2=left{beginarraycc 0 & x_i=a_i \ 1 & x_ineq a_iendarrayright.
          $$

          So, for example
          $$
          00110oplus 01010=01100.
          $$

          A key feature of this bitwise addition function is that
          $$
          xoplus aoplus a=x.
          $$




          An example of a suitable $f(x)$ is
          $$
          beginarrayc
          x & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 100 & 101 & 110 & 111 \
          f(x) & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001
          endarray
          $$

          Here, you can see that each value of $f(x)$ is repeated exactly twice. So, we find two values of $x$ that give the same output, say $001$ and $101$. These correspond to values $x$ and $xoplus a$, so we can find $a$ with
          $$
          a=xoplus(xoplus a)=001oplus101=100.
          $$

          Then you can check for every $x$ that $f(x)=f(xoplus 100)$.






          share|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer, maybe I should clarify something, what I mean. I found this in a lecture: $ f(x) = f (x oplus a) $ (That's understandable for me, I think of the real sine with $+2pi$ and without). Now it comes: $ x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) $ this part is not understandable to me, what does that say? Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – P_Gate
            Feb 4 at 16:57











          • $begingroup$
            I suspect there's something you've misunderstood, and we haven't yet stepped far enough back to unpick what the problem is. Where does the sine function come into it?
            $endgroup$
            – DaftWullie
            Feb 5 at 8:40










          • $begingroup$
            The sine does not have to do with that at first, only when I think of a periodic function, I first think of the sine. For this applies yes: $sin(x)=sin(x+2pi)$. And starting from the sinus example, I could think of this as well: $f(x)=f(xoplus a)$ My problem was simply because I also found this in a lecture, which was not completely understandable for me:$x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) text "Eq: 1"$ I can follow your explanation. Unfortunately this does not answer my implicit question: See "Eq: 1"
            $endgroup$
            – QuantaMag
            Feb 5 at 12:37











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3












          $begingroup$

          This is basically the definition of the type of function that you apply Simon's algorithm to. You are required to have a function $f(x)$ such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(y)
          $$

          if and only if $xoplus y=0$ or $s$.



          Hence, if $s$ is all zeros, the outcomes are all unique: if $f(x)=f(y)$ then $x=yoplus 000ldots 0$, but bitwise addition modulo with 0 doesn't change the bit values, so $x=y$.



          On the other hand, if $s$ is non-zero, there are exactly two values that give the same value of $f(x)$ since $xoplus00ldots 0=x$, just leaving the distinct $y=xoplus s$.




          To add, following a comment. I suspect we need to go further back and understand the notation better. There is a function $f(x)$. It accepts, as an argument, a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as a variable $x$ (we write $xin0,1^n$ as a shorthand for conveying it's made up of $n$ bit values). The answer is a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as $y=f(x)$. We are promised that $a$, also a sequence of $n$ bit values exists such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(xoplus a).
          $$

          The calculation $xoplus a$ has a very specific meaning; we take each bit of $x$ (call the $i^th$ bit $x_i$) and each bit of $x$ and return the sequence where they have been added together modulo 2:
          $$
          x_ioplus a_i=x_itext XOR a_i=x_i+a_itext mod 2=left{beginarraycc 0 & x_i=a_i \ 1 & x_ineq a_iendarrayright.
          $$

          So, for example
          $$
          00110oplus 01010=01100.
          $$

          A key feature of this bitwise addition function is that
          $$
          xoplus aoplus a=x.
          $$




          An example of a suitable $f(x)$ is
          $$
          beginarrayc
          x & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 100 & 101 & 110 & 111 \
          f(x) & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001
          endarray
          $$

          Here, you can see that each value of $f(x)$ is repeated exactly twice. So, we find two values of $x$ that give the same output, say $001$ and $101$. These correspond to values $x$ and $xoplus a$, so we can find $a$ with
          $$
          a=xoplus(xoplus a)=001oplus101=100.
          $$

          Then you can check for every $x$ that $f(x)=f(xoplus 100)$.






          share|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer, maybe I should clarify something, what I mean. I found this in a lecture: $ f(x) = f (x oplus a) $ (That's understandable for me, I think of the real sine with $+2pi$ and without). Now it comes: $ x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) $ this part is not understandable to me, what does that say? Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – P_Gate
            Feb 4 at 16:57











          • $begingroup$
            I suspect there's something you've misunderstood, and we haven't yet stepped far enough back to unpick what the problem is. Where does the sine function come into it?
            $endgroup$
            – DaftWullie
            Feb 5 at 8:40










          • $begingroup$
            The sine does not have to do with that at first, only when I think of a periodic function, I first think of the sine. For this applies yes: $sin(x)=sin(x+2pi)$. And starting from the sinus example, I could think of this as well: $f(x)=f(xoplus a)$ My problem was simply because I also found this in a lecture, which was not completely understandable for me:$x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) text "Eq: 1"$ I can follow your explanation. Unfortunately this does not answer my implicit question: See "Eq: 1"
            $endgroup$
            – QuantaMag
            Feb 5 at 12:37
















          3












          $begingroup$

          This is basically the definition of the type of function that you apply Simon's algorithm to. You are required to have a function $f(x)$ such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(y)
          $$

          if and only if $xoplus y=0$ or $s$.



          Hence, if $s$ is all zeros, the outcomes are all unique: if $f(x)=f(y)$ then $x=yoplus 000ldots 0$, but bitwise addition modulo with 0 doesn't change the bit values, so $x=y$.



          On the other hand, if $s$ is non-zero, there are exactly two values that give the same value of $f(x)$ since $xoplus00ldots 0=x$, just leaving the distinct $y=xoplus s$.




          To add, following a comment. I suspect we need to go further back and understand the notation better. There is a function $f(x)$. It accepts, as an argument, a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as a variable $x$ (we write $xin0,1^n$ as a shorthand for conveying it's made up of $n$ bit values). The answer is a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as $y=f(x)$. We are promised that $a$, also a sequence of $n$ bit values exists such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(xoplus a).
          $$

          The calculation $xoplus a$ has a very specific meaning; we take each bit of $x$ (call the $i^th$ bit $x_i$) and each bit of $x$ and return the sequence where they have been added together modulo 2:
          $$
          x_ioplus a_i=x_itext XOR a_i=x_i+a_itext mod 2=left{beginarraycc 0 & x_i=a_i \ 1 & x_ineq a_iendarrayright.
          $$

          So, for example
          $$
          00110oplus 01010=01100.
          $$

          A key feature of this bitwise addition function is that
          $$
          xoplus aoplus a=x.
          $$




          An example of a suitable $f(x)$ is
          $$
          beginarrayc
          x & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 100 & 101 & 110 & 111 \
          f(x) & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001
          endarray
          $$

          Here, you can see that each value of $f(x)$ is repeated exactly twice. So, we find two values of $x$ that give the same output, say $001$ and $101$. These correspond to values $x$ and $xoplus a$, so we can find $a$ with
          $$
          a=xoplus(xoplus a)=001oplus101=100.
          $$

          Then you can check for every $x$ that $f(x)=f(xoplus 100)$.






          share|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer, maybe I should clarify something, what I mean. I found this in a lecture: $ f(x) = f (x oplus a) $ (That's understandable for me, I think of the real sine with $+2pi$ and without). Now it comes: $ x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) $ this part is not understandable to me, what does that say? Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – P_Gate
            Feb 4 at 16:57











          • $begingroup$
            I suspect there's something you've misunderstood, and we haven't yet stepped far enough back to unpick what the problem is. Where does the sine function come into it?
            $endgroup$
            – DaftWullie
            Feb 5 at 8:40










          • $begingroup$
            The sine does not have to do with that at first, only when I think of a periodic function, I first think of the sine. For this applies yes: $sin(x)=sin(x+2pi)$. And starting from the sinus example, I could think of this as well: $f(x)=f(xoplus a)$ My problem was simply because I also found this in a lecture, which was not completely understandable for me:$x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) text "Eq: 1"$ I can follow your explanation. Unfortunately this does not answer my implicit question: See "Eq: 1"
            $endgroup$
            – QuantaMag
            Feb 5 at 12:37














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          This is basically the definition of the type of function that you apply Simon's algorithm to. You are required to have a function $f(x)$ such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(y)
          $$

          if and only if $xoplus y=0$ or $s$.



          Hence, if $s$ is all zeros, the outcomes are all unique: if $f(x)=f(y)$ then $x=yoplus 000ldots 0$, but bitwise addition modulo with 0 doesn't change the bit values, so $x=y$.



          On the other hand, if $s$ is non-zero, there are exactly two values that give the same value of $f(x)$ since $xoplus00ldots 0=x$, just leaving the distinct $y=xoplus s$.




          To add, following a comment. I suspect we need to go further back and understand the notation better. There is a function $f(x)$. It accepts, as an argument, a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as a variable $x$ (we write $xin0,1^n$ as a shorthand for conveying it's made up of $n$ bit values). The answer is a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as $y=f(x)$. We are promised that $a$, also a sequence of $n$ bit values exists such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(xoplus a).
          $$

          The calculation $xoplus a$ has a very specific meaning; we take each bit of $x$ (call the $i^th$ bit $x_i$) and each bit of $x$ and return the sequence where they have been added together modulo 2:
          $$
          x_ioplus a_i=x_itext XOR a_i=x_i+a_itext mod 2=left{beginarraycc 0 & x_i=a_i \ 1 & x_ineq a_iendarrayright.
          $$

          So, for example
          $$
          00110oplus 01010=01100.
          $$

          A key feature of this bitwise addition function is that
          $$
          xoplus aoplus a=x.
          $$




          An example of a suitable $f(x)$ is
          $$
          beginarrayc
          x & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 100 & 101 & 110 & 111 \
          f(x) & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001
          endarray
          $$

          Here, you can see that each value of $f(x)$ is repeated exactly twice. So, we find two values of $x$ that give the same output, say $001$ and $101$. These correspond to values $x$ and $xoplus a$, so we can find $a$ with
          $$
          a=xoplus(xoplus a)=001oplus101=100.
          $$

          Then you can check for every $x$ that $f(x)=f(xoplus 100)$.






          share|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          This is basically the definition of the type of function that you apply Simon's algorithm to. You are required to have a function $f(x)$ such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(y)
          $$

          if and only if $xoplus y=0$ or $s$.



          Hence, if $s$ is all zeros, the outcomes are all unique: if $f(x)=f(y)$ then $x=yoplus 000ldots 0$, but bitwise addition modulo with 0 doesn't change the bit values, so $x=y$.



          On the other hand, if $s$ is non-zero, there are exactly two values that give the same value of $f(x)$ since $xoplus00ldots 0=x$, just leaving the distinct $y=xoplus s$.




          To add, following a comment. I suspect we need to go further back and understand the notation better. There is a function $f(x)$. It accepts, as an argument, a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as a variable $x$ (we write $xin0,1^n$ as a shorthand for conveying it's made up of $n$ bit values). The answer is a sequence of $n$ bit values, which we write as $y=f(x)$. We are promised that $a$, also a sequence of $n$ bit values exists such that
          $$
          f(x)=f(xoplus a).
          $$

          The calculation $xoplus a$ has a very specific meaning; we take each bit of $x$ (call the $i^th$ bit $x_i$) and each bit of $x$ and return the sequence where they have been added together modulo 2:
          $$
          x_ioplus a_i=x_itext XOR a_i=x_i+a_itext mod 2=left{beginarraycc 0 & x_i=a_i \ 1 & x_ineq a_iendarrayright.
          $$

          So, for example
          $$
          00110oplus 01010=01100.
          $$

          A key feature of this bitwise addition function is that
          $$
          xoplus aoplus a=x.
          $$




          An example of a suitable $f(x)$ is
          $$
          beginarrayc
          x & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 100 & 101 & 110 & 111 \
          f(x) & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001 & 010 & 011 & 000 & 001
          endarray
          $$

          Here, you can see that each value of $f(x)$ is repeated exactly twice. So, we find two values of $x$ that give the same output, say $001$ and $101$. These correspond to values $x$ and $xoplus a$, so we can find $a$ with
          $$
          a=xoplus(xoplus a)=001oplus101=100.
          $$

          Then you can check for every $x$ that $f(x)=f(xoplus 100)$.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Feb 5 at 8:54

























          answered Feb 4 at 16:39









          DaftWullieDaftWullie

          14.1k1540




          14.1k1540











          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer, maybe I should clarify something, what I mean. I found this in a lecture: $ f(x) = f (x oplus a) $ (That's understandable for me, I think of the real sine with $+2pi$ and without). Now it comes: $ x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) $ this part is not understandable to me, what does that say? Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – P_Gate
            Feb 4 at 16:57











          • $begingroup$
            I suspect there's something you've misunderstood, and we haven't yet stepped far enough back to unpick what the problem is. Where does the sine function come into it?
            $endgroup$
            – DaftWullie
            Feb 5 at 8:40










          • $begingroup$
            The sine does not have to do with that at first, only when I think of a periodic function, I first think of the sine. For this applies yes: $sin(x)=sin(x+2pi)$. And starting from the sinus example, I could think of this as well: $f(x)=f(xoplus a)$ My problem was simply because I also found this in a lecture, which was not completely understandable for me:$x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) text "Eq: 1"$ I can follow your explanation. Unfortunately this does not answer my implicit question: See "Eq: 1"
            $endgroup$
            – QuantaMag
            Feb 5 at 12:37

















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer, maybe I should clarify something, what I mean. I found this in a lecture: $ f(x) = f (x oplus a) $ (That's understandable for me, I think of the real sine with $+2pi$ and without). Now it comes: $ x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) $ this part is not understandable to me, what does that say? Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – P_Gate
            Feb 4 at 16:57











          • $begingroup$
            I suspect there's something you've misunderstood, and we haven't yet stepped far enough back to unpick what the problem is. Where does the sine function come into it?
            $endgroup$
            – DaftWullie
            Feb 5 at 8:40










          • $begingroup$
            The sine does not have to do with that at first, only when I think of a periodic function, I first think of the sine. For this applies yes: $sin(x)=sin(x+2pi)$. And starting from the sinus example, I could think of this as well: $f(x)=f(xoplus a)$ My problem was simply because I also found this in a lecture, which was not completely understandable for me:$x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) text "Eq: 1"$ I can follow your explanation. Unfortunately this does not answer my implicit question: See "Eq: 1"
            $endgroup$
            – QuantaMag
            Feb 5 at 12:37
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks for your answer, maybe I should clarify something, what I mean. I found this in a lecture: $ f(x) = f (x oplus a) $ (That's understandable for me, I think of the real sine with $+2pi$ and without). Now it comes: $ x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) $ this part is not understandable to me, what does that say? Thank you for your help!
          $endgroup$
          – P_Gate
          Feb 4 at 16:57





          $begingroup$
          Thanks for your answer, maybe I should clarify something, what I mean. I found this in a lecture: $ f(x) = f (x oplus a) $ (That's understandable for me, I think of the real sine with $+2pi$ and without). Now it comes: $ x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) $ this part is not understandable to me, what does that say? Thank you for your help!
          $endgroup$
          – P_Gate
          Feb 4 at 16:57













          $begingroup$
          I suspect there's something you've misunderstood, and we haven't yet stepped far enough back to unpick what the problem is. Where does the sine function come into it?
          $endgroup$
          – DaftWullie
          Feb 5 at 8:40




          $begingroup$
          I suspect there's something you've misunderstood, and we haven't yet stepped far enough back to unpick what the problem is. Where does the sine function come into it?
          $endgroup$
          – DaftWullie
          Feb 5 at 8:40












          $begingroup$
          The sine does not have to do with that at first, only when I think of a periodic function, I first think of the sine. For this applies yes: $sin(x)=sin(x+2pi)$. And starting from the sinus example, I could think of this as well: $f(x)=f(xoplus a)$ My problem was simply because I also found this in a lecture, which was not completely understandable for me:$x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) text "Eq: 1"$ I can follow your explanation. Unfortunately this does not answer my implicit question: See "Eq: 1"
          $endgroup$
          – QuantaMag
          Feb 5 at 12:37





          $begingroup$
          The sine does not have to do with that at first, only when I think of a periodic function, I first think of the sine. For this applies yes: $sin(x)=sin(x+2pi)$. And starting from the sinus example, I could think of this as well: $f(x)=f(xoplus a)$ My problem was simply because I also found this in a lecture, which was not completely understandable for me:$x, y in 0,1^n, textif x neq y oplus a, text then f(x) neq f(y) text "Eq: 1"$ I can follow your explanation. Unfortunately this does not answer my implicit question: See "Eq: 1"
          $endgroup$
          – QuantaMag
          Feb 5 at 12:37


















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