Does god know what comes after his death?
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If god is omniscient, then he can see into everyone's future, including his own. If god is omnipotent, then he could in theory end his own existence at any moment. Would his omniscience include knowing what would happen after he dies (after he loses his omniscience)? And if his omniscience doesn't include knowing what it's like to cease to exist, then wouldn't god be inclined to end his own existence (in order to attempt to explore the unknown)?
- This question(s) is partly derived from the book "gods Debris"(pages 41-44) by Scott Adams
theology paradox omniscience omnipotence
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If god is omniscient, then he can see into everyone's future, including his own. If god is omnipotent, then he could in theory end his own existence at any moment. Would his omniscience include knowing what would happen after he dies (after he loses his omniscience)? And if his omniscience doesn't include knowing what it's like to cease to exist, then wouldn't god be inclined to end his own existence (in order to attempt to explore the unknown)?
- This question(s) is partly derived from the book "gods Debris"(pages 41-44) by Scott Adams
theology paradox omniscience omnipotence
I made some edits which you may roll back or continue editing. Would you have the page numbers where this is located in Adams' book?
â Frank Hubeny
54 mins ago
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up vote
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up vote
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down vote
favorite
If god is omniscient, then he can see into everyone's future, including his own. If god is omnipotent, then he could in theory end his own existence at any moment. Would his omniscience include knowing what would happen after he dies (after he loses his omniscience)? And if his omniscience doesn't include knowing what it's like to cease to exist, then wouldn't god be inclined to end his own existence (in order to attempt to explore the unknown)?
- This question(s) is partly derived from the book "gods Debris"(pages 41-44) by Scott Adams
theology paradox omniscience omnipotence
If god is omniscient, then he can see into everyone's future, including his own. If god is omnipotent, then he could in theory end his own existence at any moment. Would his omniscience include knowing what would happen after he dies (after he loses his omniscience)? And if his omniscience doesn't include knowing what it's like to cease to exist, then wouldn't god be inclined to end his own existence (in order to attempt to explore the unknown)?
- This question(s) is partly derived from the book "gods Debris"(pages 41-44) by Scott Adams
theology paradox omniscience omnipotence
theology paradox omniscience omnipotence
edited 26 mins ago
asked 1 hour ago
Tobias Ethercroft
367
367
I made some edits which you may roll back or continue editing. Would you have the page numbers where this is located in Adams' book?
â Frank Hubeny
54 mins ago
add a comment |Â
I made some edits which you may roll back or continue editing. Would you have the page numbers where this is located in Adams' book?
â Frank Hubeny
54 mins ago
I made some edits which you may roll back or continue editing. Would you have the page numbers where this is located in Adams' book?
â Frank Hubeny
54 mins ago
I made some edits which you may roll back or continue editing. Would you have the page numbers where this is located in Adams' book?
â Frank Hubeny
54 mins ago
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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I think that killing oneself is contrary to the goodness of God, so I don't mind saying that "God could not do that". Here's how William Lane Craig addresses this thought:
...omnipotence should not be defined in terms of ability to do certain tasks. This is the presupposition of your question. Rather omnipotence should be defined in terms of ability to actualize states of affairs. Under this conception, your question then becomes whether omnipotence entails the ability to actualize the state of affairs GodâÂÂs doing an evil act.
Obviously, because of GodâÂÂs essential goodness such a state of affairs is broadly logically impossible. Therefore, inability to bring about such a state of affairs is no infringement of omnipotence.
https://www.reasonablefaith.org/writings/question-answer/omnipotence-and-the-ability-to-do-evil/
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
I think that killing oneself is contrary to the goodness of God, so I don't mind saying that "God could not do that". Here's how William Lane Craig addresses this thought:
...omnipotence should not be defined in terms of ability to do certain tasks. This is the presupposition of your question. Rather omnipotence should be defined in terms of ability to actualize states of affairs. Under this conception, your question then becomes whether omnipotence entails the ability to actualize the state of affairs GodâÂÂs doing an evil act.
Obviously, because of GodâÂÂs essential goodness such a state of affairs is broadly logically impossible. Therefore, inability to bring about such a state of affairs is no infringement of omnipotence.
https://www.reasonablefaith.org/writings/question-answer/omnipotence-and-the-ability-to-do-evil/
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
I think that killing oneself is contrary to the goodness of God, so I don't mind saying that "God could not do that". Here's how William Lane Craig addresses this thought:
...omnipotence should not be defined in terms of ability to do certain tasks. This is the presupposition of your question. Rather omnipotence should be defined in terms of ability to actualize states of affairs. Under this conception, your question then becomes whether omnipotence entails the ability to actualize the state of affairs GodâÂÂs doing an evil act.
Obviously, because of GodâÂÂs essential goodness such a state of affairs is broadly logically impossible. Therefore, inability to bring about such a state of affairs is no infringement of omnipotence.
https://www.reasonablefaith.org/writings/question-answer/omnipotence-and-the-ability-to-do-evil/
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
I think that killing oneself is contrary to the goodness of God, so I don't mind saying that "God could not do that". Here's how William Lane Craig addresses this thought:
...omnipotence should not be defined in terms of ability to do certain tasks. This is the presupposition of your question. Rather omnipotence should be defined in terms of ability to actualize states of affairs. Under this conception, your question then becomes whether omnipotence entails the ability to actualize the state of affairs GodâÂÂs doing an evil act.
Obviously, because of GodâÂÂs essential goodness such a state of affairs is broadly logically impossible. Therefore, inability to bring about such a state of affairs is no infringement of omnipotence.
https://www.reasonablefaith.org/writings/question-answer/omnipotence-and-the-ability-to-do-evil/
I think that killing oneself is contrary to the goodness of God, so I don't mind saying that "God could not do that". Here's how William Lane Craig addresses this thought:
...omnipotence should not be defined in terms of ability to do certain tasks. This is the presupposition of your question. Rather omnipotence should be defined in terms of ability to actualize states of affairs. Under this conception, your question then becomes whether omnipotence entails the ability to actualize the state of affairs GodâÂÂs doing an evil act.
Obviously, because of GodâÂÂs essential goodness such a state of affairs is broadly logically impossible. Therefore, inability to bring about such a state of affairs is no infringement of omnipotence.
https://www.reasonablefaith.org/writings/question-answer/omnipotence-and-the-ability-to-do-evil/
answered 1 hour ago
elliot svensson
2,38617
2,38617
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I made some edits which you may roll back or continue editing. Would you have the page numbers where this is located in Adams' book?
â Frank Hubeny
54 mins ago