Is the following set a compact set?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
2
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Let $A$ be defined as
$$A:=_C^1 leq 1.$$
I have shown that the set is precompact. But is $A$ a complete set? Or an other question: Is $A$ a closed set?
general-topology functional-analysis compactness complete-spaces locally-compact-groups
edited Nov 25 at 17:37
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
asked Nov 25 at 9:44
MathCracky
445212
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $A$ be defined as
$$A:=_C^1 leq 1.$$
I have shown that the set is precompact. But is $A$ a complete set? Or an other question: Is $A$ a closed set?
general-topology functional-analysis compactness complete-spaces locally-compact-groups
edited Nov 25 at 17:37
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
asked Nov 25 at 9:44
MathCracky
445212
Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 9:55
How did You show $A$ is precompact?
– Peter Melech
Nov 25 at 10:10
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $A$ be defined as
$$A:=_C^1 leq 1.$$
I have shown that the set is precompact. But is $A$ a complete set? Or an other question: Is $A$ a closed set?
general-topology functional-analysis compactness complete-spaces locally-compact-groups
edited Nov 25 at 17:37
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
asked Nov 25 at 9:44
MathCracky
445212
Let $A$ be defined as
$$A:=_C^1 leq 1.$$
I have shown that the set is precompact. But is $A$ a complete set? Or an other question: Is $A$ a closed set?
general-topology functional-analysis compactness complete-spaces locally-compact-groups
general-topology functional-analysis compactness complete-spaces locally-compact-groups
edited Nov 25 at 17:37
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
asked Nov 25 at 9:44
MathCracky
445212
edited Nov 25 at 17:37
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
asked Nov 25 at 9:44
MathCracky
445212
edited Nov 25 at 17:37
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
edited Nov 25 at 17:37
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
edited Nov 25 at 17:37
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
62k1383161
asked Nov 25 at 9:44
MathCracky
445212
asked Nov 25 at 9:44
MathCracky
445212
asked Nov 25 at 9:44
MathCracky
445212
445212
Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 9:55
How did You show $A$ is precompact?
– Peter Melech
Nov 25 at 10:10
add a comment |
Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 9:55
How did You show $A$ is precompact?
– Peter Melech
Nov 25 at 10:10
Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 9:55
Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 9:55
How did You show $A$ is precompact?
– Peter Melech
Nov 25 at 10:10
How did You show $A$ is precompact?
– Peter Melech
Nov 25 at 10:10
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.
But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.
I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.
answered Nov 25 at 9:58
José Carlos Santos
143k20112211
2
Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
– Yanko
Nov 25 at 10:44
But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
– MaoWao
Nov 25 at 17:58
No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 18:04
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
The answer is NO.
Consider the sequence
$$
f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
$$
Then
$$
|,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
$$
If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.
answered Nov 25 at 10:55
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.
But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.
I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.
answered Nov 25 at 9:58
José Carlos Santos
143k20112211
2
Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
– Yanko
Nov 25 at 10:44
But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
– MaoWao
Nov 25 at 17:58
No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 18:04
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.
But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.
I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.
answered Nov 25 at 9:58
José Carlos Santos
143k20112211
2
Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
– Yanko
Nov 25 at 10:44
But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
– MaoWao
Nov 25 at 17:58
No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 18:04
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.
But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.
I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.
answered Nov 25 at 9:58
José Carlos Santos
143k20112211
The set is closed since it is the inverse image of $[0,1]$ with respect to the continuous map $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$.
But it cannot possibly be compact because the only normed spaces with compact closed unit balls are the finite-dimensional ones. And your space isn't.
I don't know which norm the norm $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$ is, but I suppose that it is such that $C^1bigl([0,1],mathbb Rbigr)$ is complete. If that's so, then $A$ is complete (since it is closed). Therefore, it cannot possibly be precompact, since compact $iff$ precompact and complete.
answered Nov 25 at 9:58
José Carlos Santos
143k20112211
edited Nov 25 at 10:03
answered Nov 25 at 9:58
José Carlos Santos
143k20112211
answered Nov 25 at 9:58
José Carlos Santos
143k20112211
answered Nov 25 at 9:58
José Carlos Santos
143k20112211
143k20112211
2
Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
– Yanko
Nov 25 at 10:44
But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
– MaoWao
Nov 25 at 17:58
No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 18:04
add a comment |
2
Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
– Yanko
Nov 25 at 10:44
But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
– MaoWao
Nov 25 at 17:58
No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 18:04
2
2
Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
– Yanko
Nov 25 at 10:44
Good answer (+1). Just for general knowledge the norm $|cdot|_C^1$ is usually the sup norm + the sup norm of the derivative (i.e. $|f|_C^1 = |f|_infty + |f'|_infty$). This is indeed a norm such that $C^1([0,1],mathbbR)$ is complete.
– Yanko
Nov 25 at 10:44
But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
– MaoWao
Nov 25 at 17:58
But the set $A$ is precompact in $C([0,1])$ with the sup norm by Arzela-Ascoli. Maybe that's what the op meant.
– MaoWao
Nov 25 at 17:58
No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 18:04
No, it is not precompact. If $f_n(x)=x^n$, $(f_n)_ninmathbb N$ has no convergent subsequence.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 18:04
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
The answer is NO.
Consider the sequence
$$
f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
$$
Then
$$
|,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
$$
If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.
answered Nov 25 at 10:55
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
The answer is NO.
Consider the sequence
$$
f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
$$
Then
$$
|,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
$$
If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.
answered Nov 25 at 10:55
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
The answer is NO.
Consider the sequence
$$
f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
$$
Then
$$
|,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
$$
If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.
answered Nov 25 at 10:55
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
The answer is NO.
Consider the sequence
$$
f_n(x)=frac1n+1sin(nx),,,ninmathbb N.
$$
Then
$$
|,f_n|_C^1= max |,f_n|+ max |,f_n'|=frac1n+1+fracnn+1=1.
$$
If $,f_n$ possessed a converging subsequence $,,f_n_k$, in the $C^1-$sense, with limit $,f,,$ then $,,f_n_k$ would also converge to $f$ in the uniform sense. But, $,f_n_k$
converges uniformly to $fequiv 0$. Nevertheless, $,,f_n_k$ DOES NOT converge in the $C^1-$sense to $0$, since $,|,f_n_k|_C^1=1$.
answered Nov 25 at 10:55
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
answered Nov 25 at 10:55
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
answered Nov 25 at 10:55
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
answered Nov 25 at 10:55
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62k1383161
62k1383161
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Which norm is $lVertcdotrVert_C^1$?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 25 at 9:55
How did You show $A$ is precompact?
– Peter Melech
Nov 25 at 10:10