If $G$ is an abelian group, then $H=g$ is a subgroup of $G$

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5
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$$H= text divides 12$$



We have to prove that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$.



Consider $ain G$ and, the group $langle a rangle$ where $|a|=12$. This group will contain elements orders of which will be divide 12. This is a cyclic subgroup I think this should be equal to H but I am not sure as I don't know if G is finite.










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  • 2




    If you have $G = Bbb Z_12times Bbb Z_12$, then $H = G$ but $H$ isn't cyclic. So your idea with $langle arangle$ doesn't work. For another reason it doesn't work, if $G = Bbb Z_4$, then once again $H = G$, but no element has order $12$.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:30







  • 2




    You can not be sure that such an element $a$ exists in general. For all we know, $H$ could be as small as the $1$-element group $e$.
    – Suzet
    Sep 3 at 8:31










  • is the number $12$ significant somehow?
    – Alvin Lepik
    Sep 3 at 8:32










  • How else can I approach this?
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 3 at 8:32






  • 1




    How would you normally prove a statement like "Show that the subset $A$ of a group $B$ is actually a subgroup"? I would guess that you have a list of three properties, including something very much like "$ein A$". Try those, and if you can't do them all, come back here with all your results and we'll help you get the rest.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:34















up vote
5
down vote

favorite












$$H= text divides 12$$



We have to prove that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$.



Consider $ain G$ and, the group $langle a rangle$ where $|a|=12$. This group will contain elements orders of which will be divide 12. This is a cyclic subgroup I think this should be equal to H but I am not sure as I don't know if G is finite.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 2




    If you have $G = Bbb Z_12times Bbb Z_12$, then $H = G$ but $H$ isn't cyclic. So your idea with $langle arangle$ doesn't work. For another reason it doesn't work, if $G = Bbb Z_4$, then once again $H = G$, but no element has order $12$.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:30







  • 2




    You can not be sure that such an element $a$ exists in general. For all we know, $H$ could be as small as the $1$-element group $e$.
    – Suzet
    Sep 3 at 8:31










  • is the number $12$ significant somehow?
    – Alvin Lepik
    Sep 3 at 8:32










  • How else can I approach this?
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 3 at 8:32






  • 1




    How would you normally prove a statement like "Show that the subset $A$ of a group $B$ is actually a subgroup"? I would guess that you have a list of three properties, including something very much like "$ein A$". Try those, and if you can't do them all, come back here with all your results and we'll help you get the rest.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:34













up vote
5
down vote

favorite









up vote
5
down vote

favorite











$$H= text divides 12$$



We have to prove that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$.



Consider $ain G$ and, the group $langle a rangle$ where $|a|=12$. This group will contain elements orders of which will be divide 12. This is a cyclic subgroup I think this should be equal to H but I am not sure as I don't know if G is finite.










share|cite|improve this question















$$H= text divides 12$$



We have to prove that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$.



Consider $ain G$ and, the group $langle a rangle$ where $|a|=12$. This group will contain elements orders of which will be divide 12. This is a cyclic subgroup I think this should be equal to H but I am not sure as I don't know if G is finite.







abstract-algebra abelian-groups cyclic-groups






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edited Sep 3 at 16:23









Asaf Karagila♦

295k32411739




295k32411739










asked Sep 3 at 8:27









Piyush Divyanakar

3,317222




3,317222







  • 2




    If you have $G = Bbb Z_12times Bbb Z_12$, then $H = G$ but $H$ isn't cyclic. So your idea with $langle arangle$ doesn't work. For another reason it doesn't work, if $G = Bbb Z_4$, then once again $H = G$, but no element has order $12$.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:30







  • 2




    You can not be sure that such an element $a$ exists in general. For all we know, $H$ could be as small as the $1$-element group $e$.
    – Suzet
    Sep 3 at 8:31










  • is the number $12$ significant somehow?
    – Alvin Lepik
    Sep 3 at 8:32










  • How else can I approach this?
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 3 at 8:32






  • 1




    How would you normally prove a statement like "Show that the subset $A$ of a group $B$ is actually a subgroup"? I would guess that you have a list of three properties, including something very much like "$ein A$". Try those, and if you can't do them all, come back here with all your results and we'll help you get the rest.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:34













  • 2




    If you have $G = Bbb Z_12times Bbb Z_12$, then $H = G$ but $H$ isn't cyclic. So your idea with $langle arangle$ doesn't work. For another reason it doesn't work, if $G = Bbb Z_4$, then once again $H = G$, but no element has order $12$.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:30







  • 2




    You can not be sure that such an element $a$ exists in general. For all we know, $H$ could be as small as the $1$-element group $e$.
    – Suzet
    Sep 3 at 8:31










  • is the number $12$ significant somehow?
    – Alvin Lepik
    Sep 3 at 8:32










  • How else can I approach this?
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 3 at 8:32






  • 1




    How would you normally prove a statement like "Show that the subset $A$ of a group $B$ is actually a subgroup"? I would guess that you have a list of three properties, including something very much like "$ein A$". Try those, and if you can't do them all, come back here with all your results and we'll help you get the rest.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:34








2




2




If you have $G = Bbb Z_12times Bbb Z_12$, then $H = G$ but $H$ isn't cyclic. So your idea with $langle arangle$ doesn't work. For another reason it doesn't work, if $G = Bbb Z_4$, then once again $H = G$, but no element has order $12$.
– Arthur
Sep 3 at 8:30





If you have $G = Bbb Z_12times Bbb Z_12$, then $H = G$ but $H$ isn't cyclic. So your idea with $langle arangle$ doesn't work. For another reason it doesn't work, if $G = Bbb Z_4$, then once again $H = G$, but no element has order $12$.
– Arthur
Sep 3 at 8:30





2




2




You can not be sure that such an element $a$ exists in general. For all we know, $H$ could be as small as the $1$-element group $e$.
– Suzet
Sep 3 at 8:31




You can not be sure that such an element $a$ exists in general. For all we know, $H$ could be as small as the $1$-element group $e$.
– Suzet
Sep 3 at 8:31












is the number $12$ significant somehow?
– Alvin Lepik
Sep 3 at 8:32




is the number $12$ significant somehow?
– Alvin Lepik
Sep 3 at 8:32












How else can I approach this?
– Piyush Divyanakar
Sep 3 at 8:32




How else can I approach this?
– Piyush Divyanakar
Sep 3 at 8:32




1




1




How would you normally prove a statement like "Show that the subset $A$ of a group $B$ is actually a subgroup"? I would guess that you have a list of three properties, including something very much like "$ein A$". Try those, and if you can't do them all, come back here with all your results and we'll help you get the rest.
– Arthur
Sep 3 at 8:34





How would you normally prove a statement like "Show that the subset $A$ of a group $B$ is actually a subgroup"? I would guess that you have a list of three properties, including something very much like "$ein A$". Try those, and if you can't do them all, come back here with all your results and we'll help you get the rest.
– Arthur
Sep 3 at 8:34











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
9
down vote



accepted










Hint: We can rewrite $H=gin Gmid 12g=0$. Therefore, if you can show that the map $gmapsto 12g$ is a homomorphism, then you have that $H$ is the kernel of a homomorphism and therefore a subgroup.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I have just started so I haven't covered homorphisms yet so I couldn't think in this direction, but I understand the idea based on my Linear algebra knowledge. Great solve thanks.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:21










  • @PiyushDivyanakar You can use the rewriting without talking about homomorphisms. Show that if $12g=0$, then $12(-g)=0$, if $12g=12h=0$, then $12(g+h)=0$, and $12(0)=0$. There are more things to check this way, but it is still straight forward.
    – Aaron
    Sep 4 at 7:24










  • Yes that's how I solved it. I based it on ArsenBerk's answer.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:26

















up vote
4
down vote













Instead of seeking a specific example like cyclic groups, you can prove it in a more general way:



HINT: $H le G$ if and only if



1) $H$ is not empty.



2) $H$ is closed under binary operation of $G$.



3) $H$ is closed under inverses.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    "actually 2) and 3) implies 1) but we need to ensure $H$ is non-empty." Then 2) and 3) do not imply 1). 2) and 3) together with "1') $H$ is non-empty" imply 1).
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:42











  • Oh, that is really logical.
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:43






  • 1




    Yes, we do assume that. It's a convention called vacuous truth, and it often does seem counterintuitive to people when they first encounter it. But it works better with all our other logic than any alternative.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:48







  • 1




    Well, after I asked, I thought that it is not counter-intuitive because in an empty set, there is no element that breaks closure under binary operation or closure under inverses. I will check "vacuous truth" out, thank you for that :)
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:50











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
9
down vote



accepted










Hint: We can rewrite $H=gin Gmid 12g=0$. Therefore, if you can show that the map $gmapsto 12g$ is a homomorphism, then you have that $H$ is the kernel of a homomorphism and therefore a subgroup.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I have just started so I haven't covered homorphisms yet so I couldn't think in this direction, but I understand the idea based on my Linear algebra knowledge. Great solve thanks.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:21










  • @PiyushDivyanakar You can use the rewriting without talking about homomorphisms. Show that if $12g=0$, then $12(-g)=0$, if $12g=12h=0$, then $12(g+h)=0$, and $12(0)=0$. There are more things to check this way, but it is still straight forward.
    – Aaron
    Sep 4 at 7:24










  • Yes that's how I solved it. I based it on ArsenBerk's answer.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:26














up vote
9
down vote



accepted










Hint: We can rewrite $H=gin Gmid 12g=0$. Therefore, if you can show that the map $gmapsto 12g$ is a homomorphism, then you have that $H$ is the kernel of a homomorphism and therefore a subgroup.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I have just started so I haven't covered homorphisms yet so I couldn't think in this direction, but I understand the idea based on my Linear algebra knowledge. Great solve thanks.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:21










  • @PiyushDivyanakar You can use the rewriting without talking about homomorphisms. Show that if $12g=0$, then $12(-g)=0$, if $12g=12h=0$, then $12(g+h)=0$, and $12(0)=0$. There are more things to check this way, but it is still straight forward.
    – Aaron
    Sep 4 at 7:24










  • Yes that's how I solved it. I based it on ArsenBerk's answer.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:26












up vote
9
down vote



accepted







up vote
9
down vote



accepted






Hint: We can rewrite $H=gin Gmid 12g=0$. Therefore, if you can show that the map $gmapsto 12g$ is a homomorphism, then you have that $H$ is the kernel of a homomorphism and therefore a subgroup.






share|cite|improve this answer












Hint: We can rewrite $H=gin Gmid 12g=0$. Therefore, if you can show that the map $gmapsto 12g$ is a homomorphism, then you have that $H$ is the kernel of a homomorphism and therefore a subgroup.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Sep 3 at 9:00









Aaron

15.4k22552




15.4k22552











  • I have just started so I haven't covered homorphisms yet so I couldn't think in this direction, but I understand the idea based on my Linear algebra knowledge. Great solve thanks.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:21










  • @PiyushDivyanakar You can use the rewriting without talking about homomorphisms. Show that if $12g=0$, then $12(-g)=0$, if $12g=12h=0$, then $12(g+h)=0$, and $12(0)=0$. There are more things to check this way, but it is still straight forward.
    – Aaron
    Sep 4 at 7:24










  • Yes that's how I solved it. I based it on ArsenBerk's answer.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:26
















  • I have just started so I haven't covered homorphisms yet so I couldn't think in this direction, but I understand the idea based on my Linear algebra knowledge. Great solve thanks.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:21










  • @PiyushDivyanakar You can use the rewriting without talking about homomorphisms. Show that if $12g=0$, then $12(-g)=0$, if $12g=12h=0$, then $12(g+h)=0$, and $12(0)=0$. There are more things to check this way, but it is still straight forward.
    – Aaron
    Sep 4 at 7:24










  • Yes that's how I solved it. I based it on ArsenBerk's answer.
    – Piyush Divyanakar
    Sep 4 at 7:26















I have just started so I haven't covered homorphisms yet so I couldn't think in this direction, but I understand the idea based on my Linear algebra knowledge. Great solve thanks.
– Piyush Divyanakar
Sep 4 at 7:21




I have just started so I haven't covered homorphisms yet so I couldn't think in this direction, but I understand the idea based on my Linear algebra knowledge. Great solve thanks.
– Piyush Divyanakar
Sep 4 at 7:21












@PiyushDivyanakar You can use the rewriting without talking about homomorphisms. Show that if $12g=0$, then $12(-g)=0$, if $12g=12h=0$, then $12(g+h)=0$, and $12(0)=0$. There are more things to check this way, but it is still straight forward.
– Aaron
Sep 4 at 7:24




@PiyushDivyanakar You can use the rewriting without talking about homomorphisms. Show that if $12g=0$, then $12(-g)=0$, if $12g=12h=0$, then $12(g+h)=0$, and $12(0)=0$. There are more things to check this way, but it is still straight forward.
– Aaron
Sep 4 at 7:24












Yes that's how I solved it. I based it on ArsenBerk's answer.
– Piyush Divyanakar
Sep 4 at 7:26




Yes that's how I solved it. I based it on ArsenBerk's answer.
– Piyush Divyanakar
Sep 4 at 7:26










up vote
4
down vote













Instead of seeking a specific example like cyclic groups, you can prove it in a more general way:



HINT: $H le G$ if and only if



1) $H$ is not empty.



2) $H$ is closed under binary operation of $G$.



3) $H$ is closed under inverses.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    "actually 2) and 3) implies 1) but we need to ensure $H$ is non-empty." Then 2) and 3) do not imply 1). 2) and 3) together with "1') $H$ is non-empty" imply 1).
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:42











  • Oh, that is really logical.
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:43






  • 1




    Yes, we do assume that. It's a convention called vacuous truth, and it often does seem counterintuitive to people when they first encounter it. But it works better with all our other logic than any alternative.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:48







  • 1




    Well, after I asked, I thought that it is not counter-intuitive because in an empty set, there is no element that breaks closure under binary operation or closure under inverses. I will check "vacuous truth" out, thank you for that :)
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:50















up vote
4
down vote













Instead of seeking a specific example like cyclic groups, you can prove it in a more general way:



HINT: $H le G$ if and only if



1) $H$ is not empty.



2) $H$ is closed under binary operation of $G$.



3) $H$ is closed under inverses.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 2




    "actually 2) and 3) implies 1) but we need to ensure $H$ is non-empty." Then 2) and 3) do not imply 1). 2) and 3) together with "1') $H$ is non-empty" imply 1).
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:42











  • Oh, that is really logical.
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:43






  • 1




    Yes, we do assume that. It's a convention called vacuous truth, and it often does seem counterintuitive to people when they first encounter it. But it works better with all our other logic than any alternative.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:48







  • 1




    Well, after I asked, I thought that it is not counter-intuitive because in an empty set, there is no element that breaks closure under binary operation or closure under inverses. I will check "vacuous truth" out, thank you for that :)
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:50













up vote
4
down vote










up vote
4
down vote









Instead of seeking a specific example like cyclic groups, you can prove it in a more general way:



HINT: $H le G$ if and only if



1) $H$ is not empty.



2) $H$ is closed under binary operation of $G$.



3) $H$ is closed under inverses.






share|cite|improve this answer














Instead of seeking a specific example like cyclic groups, you can prove it in a more general way:



HINT: $H le G$ if and only if



1) $H$ is not empty.



2) $H$ is closed under binary operation of $G$.



3) $H$ is closed under inverses.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Sep 3 at 8:44

























answered Sep 3 at 8:39









ArsenBerk

7,00221034




7,00221034







  • 2




    "actually 2) and 3) implies 1) but we need to ensure $H$ is non-empty." Then 2) and 3) do not imply 1). 2) and 3) together with "1') $H$ is non-empty" imply 1).
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:42











  • Oh, that is really logical.
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:43






  • 1




    Yes, we do assume that. It's a convention called vacuous truth, and it often does seem counterintuitive to people when they first encounter it. But it works better with all our other logic than any alternative.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:48







  • 1




    Well, after I asked, I thought that it is not counter-intuitive because in an empty set, there is no element that breaks closure under binary operation or closure under inverses. I will check "vacuous truth" out, thank you for that :)
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:50













  • 2




    "actually 2) and 3) implies 1) but we need to ensure $H$ is non-empty." Then 2) and 3) do not imply 1). 2) and 3) together with "1') $H$ is non-empty" imply 1).
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:42











  • Oh, that is really logical.
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:43






  • 1




    Yes, we do assume that. It's a convention called vacuous truth, and it often does seem counterintuitive to people when they first encounter it. But it works better with all our other logic than any alternative.
    – Arthur
    Sep 3 at 8:48







  • 1




    Well, after I asked, I thought that it is not counter-intuitive because in an empty set, there is no element that breaks closure under binary operation or closure under inverses. I will check "vacuous truth" out, thank you for that :)
    – ArsenBerk
    Sep 3 at 8:50








2




2




"actually 2) and 3) implies 1) but we need to ensure $H$ is non-empty." Then 2) and 3) do not imply 1). 2) and 3) together with "1') $H$ is non-empty" imply 1).
– Arthur
Sep 3 at 8:42





"actually 2) and 3) implies 1) but we need to ensure $H$ is non-empty." Then 2) and 3) do not imply 1). 2) and 3) together with "1') $H$ is non-empty" imply 1).
– Arthur
Sep 3 at 8:42













Oh, that is really logical.
– ArsenBerk
Sep 3 at 8:43




Oh, that is really logical.
– ArsenBerk
Sep 3 at 8:43




1




1




Yes, we do assume that. It's a convention called vacuous truth, and it often does seem counterintuitive to people when they first encounter it. But it works better with all our other logic than any alternative.
– Arthur
Sep 3 at 8:48





Yes, we do assume that. It's a convention called vacuous truth, and it often does seem counterintuitive to people when they first encounter it. But it works better with all our other logic than any alternative.
– Arthur
Sep 3 at 8:48





1




1




Well, after I asked, I thought that it is not counter-intuitive because in an empty set, there is no element that breaks closure under binary operation or closure under inverses. I will check "vacuous truth" out, thank you for that :)
– ArsenBerk
Sep 3 at 8:50





Well, after I asked, I thought that it is not counter-intuitive because in an empty set, there is no element that breaks closure under binary operation or closure under inverses. I will check "vacuous truth" out, thank you for that :)
– ArsenBerk
Sep 3 at 8:50


















 

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